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Sunday, July 27, 2025

ECE MOBILE COMMUNICATION MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS - MC MCQ QUESTIONS

 Mobile Communication MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

 



## 🟢 Unit I – Mobile Radio Propagation (20 MCQs)

1. Scattering refers to:
   A) Reflection off smooth surface
   B) Redirection by rough objects
   C) Bending around edges
   D) Absorption by atmosphere
   **Answer: B**

2. Reflection, diffraction and scattering are mechanisms of:
   A) Small-scale fading
   B) Propagation
   C) Channel coding
   D) Modulation
   **Answer: B**

3. Free-space path loss increases with:
   A) Distance squared
   B) Inverse distance
   C) Constant
   D) Frequency decrease
   **Answer: A**

4. The two‑ray model accounts for:
   A) Direct and reflected rays
   B) Scattering only
   C) Diffraction only
   D) Antenna imperfections
   **Answer: A**

5. Small-scale fading results from:
   A) Distance change only
   B) Multipath interference
   C) Fixed attenuation
   D) Static obstacles
   **Answer: B**

6. Large‑scale path loss describes:
   A) Fading in milliseconds
   B) Slow average power drop with distance
   C) Random amplitude fluctuation
   D) Terrain-dependent diffraction only
   **Answer: B**

7. The two‑ray model predicts signal nulls when:
   A) Antenna height changes
   B) Path difference = multiple of wavelength/2
   C) Perfect reflection occurs
   D) Using omnidirectional antennas
   **Answer: B**

8. Diffraction occurs when waves:
   A) Reflect off surfaces
   B) Bend around obstacles
   C) Scatter randomly
   D) Travel in free space
   **Answer: B**

9. In two-ray, if antenna heights double, interference pattern:
   A) Remains same
   B) Spacing increases
   C) Spacing decreases
   D) Disappears
   **Answer: C**

10. Small-scale fading includes:
    A) Large obstacles only
    B) Ground reflections only
    C) Delay spreads and multipath
    D) Hexagonal cells
    **Answer: C**

11. Reflection causes:
    A) Phase shift and amplitude change
    B) Frequency shift only
    C) No phase effect
    D) Only scattering
    **Answer: A**

12. Free space path loss ∝ (4πd/λ)²; more loss at:
    A) Lower frequency
    B) Shorter distances
    C) Higher frequency
    D) Larger wavelength
    **Answer: C**

13. Two-ray model is used above:
    A) Sea and flat terrain
    B) Urban clutter
    C) Dense forest
    D) Only indoors
    **Answer: A**

14. Small-scale fading timescale:
    A) Seconds
    B) Minutes
    C) Milliseconds
    D) Hours
    **Answer: C**

15. Shadow fading involves:
    A) Signal roll-off due to unwanted motion
    B) Slow variations from terrain
    C) Fast fading peaks
    D) No amplitude change
    **Answer: B**

16. Multipath spread causes:
    A) Frequency reuse
    B) Time dispersion and ISI
    C) Antenna misalignment
    D) Skyline limitation
    **Answer: B**

17. In two‑ray, as distance increases, path difference:
    A) Constant
    B) Increases causing periodic fading
    C) Decreases
    D) Zero beyond horizon
    **Answer: B**

18. Scattering dominates at:
    A) Low frequencies
    B) High frequencies and small obstacles
    C) Open terrain only
    D) Uniform media
    **Answer: B**

19. Small‑scale fading can be mitigated by:
    A) Larger cells
    B) Diversity or equalization
    C) Higher TX power only
    D) Slower user speed
    **Answer: B**

20. Two-ray model is valid if TX and RX height >:
    A) Several λ
    B) Zero
    C) MHz
    D) Antenna gain
    **Answer: A**

---

## 🟢 Unit II – Cellular Concepts & Handoff Strategies (20 MCQs)

21. Frequency reuse allows:
    A) Antennas reuse only
    B) Same frequency reused in distant cells to boost capacity
    C) No reuse
    D) Single channel per cell
    **Answer: B** 


22. Co-channel cells use:
    A) Distinct frequencies
    B) Same frequencies adequately spaced
    C) Single frequency in cluster
    D) Identical codes
    **Answer: B**
23. The reuse distance formula D = R·√(3N) where N is cluster size: correct?
    A) Yes
    B) No
    **Answer: A**

24. Fixed channel assignment means:
    A) Channels flexibly allocated
    B) Permanent static assignment
    C) Borrowing from others
    D) Shared code channels
    **Answer: B**

25. Dynamic channel assignment involves:
    A) Static allocation
    B) Borrowing and assigning per call
    C) No reuse
    D) Fixed cluster size
    **Answer: B**

26. Handoff occurs when mobile:
    A) Moves within same cell
    B) Moves into another cell during call
    C) Idle state
    D) Calls end
    **Answer: B**
27. Guard channel strategy reserves channels for:
    A) New calls
    B) Handoff calls
    C) Interference damping
    D) Data only
    **Answer: B**

28. Queuing handoff reduces:
    A) Blocking new calls
    B) Dropped handoff calls
    C) Channel reuse
    D) Transmission power
    **Answer: B**

29. Soft handoff is:
    A) Break before make
    B) Make before break (connection overlaps)
    C) Hard
    D) Disruptive
    **Answer: B**

30. MAHO stands for:
    A) Mobile-assisted handoff
    B) Macro antenna hopping
    C) Manual assisted handoff
    D) Mixed access handover
    **Answer: A**

31. Dwell time is:
    A) Time within cell before handoff trigger
    B) Call duration
    C) Paging delay
    D) Frequency switch time
    **Answer: A**

32. In cellular concept, a cluster is:
    A) Frequency group
    B) Set of cells using full frequency set once
    C) Subscriber group
    D) Antenna set
    **Answer: B**
33. Main cellular aim is:
    A) Larger cells
    B) Frequency reuse
    C) Satellite link
    D) Single transmitter
    **Answer: B**

34. Co-channel interference reduction factor q = D/R: for N=7, D/R ≈:
    A) 3.46
    B) 4.6
    C) 7.6
    D) 6
    **Answer: B**

35. Hard handoff releases old connection before new:
    A) True
    B) False
    **Answer: A**

36. Inter–MSC handoff means:
    A) Same MSC
    B) Between MSCs/different area
    C) Intra-cell only
    D) Within BSC
    **Answer: B**

37. Power-difference handoff relies on:
    A) Signal strength threshold
    B) Only mobile speed
    C) Static threshold
    D) Neighbor assistance
    **Answer: A**

38. Primary handoff goal:
    A) Reduce channels
    B) Minimize dropped calls
    C) Maximize interference
    D) Increase power
    **Answer: B**
39. Channel assignment strategies include:
    A) Only fixed
    B) Only dynamic
    C) Fixed and dynamic
    D) None
    **Answer: C**

40. A neighbor list is used for:
    A) Sector planning
    B) Handoff candidate selection
    C) Frequency reuse
    D) Power control
    **Answer: B**

---

## 🟢 Unit III – System Capacity & Improvement Techniques (20 MCQs)

41. Co-channel interference arises from:
    A) Adjacent channel only
    B) Cells using same frequency
    C) Thermal noise
    D) No reuse
    **Answer: B** ([Wikipedia][4], [mcq.electronics-club.com][8])

42. Adjacent channel interference is from:
    A) Same channel reuse
    B) Neighboring frequency overlap
    C) Reflection only
    D) No interference
    **Answer: B**

43. Capacity improves by:
    A) Bigger cells
    B) Cell splitting
    C) Removing sectors
    D) Slower handoff
    **Answer: B**

44. Cell sectoring divides:
    A) Frequency evenly
    B) A cell into directional sectors reducing interference
    C) Channels temporally
    D) Only spectrum
    **Answer: B**

45. Repeaters are used for:
    A) Reducing co‑channel interference
    B) Range extension in weak coverage
    C) Cell splitting
    D) Frequency planning
    **Answer: B**

46. Microcell zone concept uses:
    A) Whole cell as a zone
    B) Smaller zones within cell for trunking
    C) Macro only
    D) TDD only
    **Answer: B**

47. Sectoring reduces:
    A) Internal capacity
    B) Interference and improves C/I
    C) Frequency reuse
    D) Power control
    **Answer: B**

48. Cell splitting increases:
    A) Cell radius
    B) Number of cells in area
    C) Carrier frequency
    D) Interference
    **Answer: B**

49. Microcells are used where:
    A) Rural low density
    B) Urban hotspots to boost capacity
    C) Satellite coverage
    D) EM interference zones
    **Answer: B**

50. Splitting vs sectoring: splitting reduces cell size, sectoring reduces:
    A) Time
    B) Angle of coverage
    C) Frequency bandwidth
    D) Power
    **Answer: B**

51. Capacity ∝:
    A) Cluster size
    B) Number of clusters replicated
    C) Cell radius only
    D) Channel width only
    **Answer: B**

52. Interference can be mitigated by:
    A) Increasing cell size
    B) Frequency planning and sectoring
    C) No reuse
    D) Static assignment only
    **Answer: B**

53. Cell splitting may lead to:
    A) Lower capacity
    B) Increased frequency reuse and capacity
    C) Higher interference
    D) Fewer channels
    **Answer: B**

54. Using repeaters avoids:
    A) Installing new base stations
    B) Capacity increase
    C) Sectoring
    D) Frequency reuse
    **Answer: A**

55. Microcell zone concept improves:
    A) Spectral efficiency through better trunking
    B) Only coverage
    C) Only cell splitting
    D) Satellite link
    **Answer: A**

56. Sectoring commonly uses:
    A) Omni antennas
    B) 3 or 6 directional sectors
    C) No antenna
    D) Isotropic patterns
    **Answer: B**

57. Co-channel interference reduction achieved by:
    A) Increasing power
    B) Frequency planning and sectoring
    C) Removing reuse
    D) None
    **Answer: B**

58. Range extension via repeater is useful in:
    A) Inner city core only
    B) Shadow or fringe areas
    C) Core network
    D) Satellite base
    **Answer: B**

59. Capacity improvement uses cell splitting, sectoring, and:
    A) Larger cells
    B) Microcell zoning
    C) Longer channels
    D) Reflectors only
    **Answer: B**

60. Adjacent channel interference is minimized by:
    A) No filtering
    B) Filtering and guard bands
    C) More power
    D) Larger frequency reuse
    **Answer: B**

---

## 🟢 Unit IV – Multipath Mitigation Techniques (20 MCQs)

61. Equalization combats:
    A) Co-channel interference
    B) ISI from multipath
    C) Shadow fading
    D) Larger cells
    **Answer: B**

62. Adaptive equalizer adjusts:
    A) Channel codes
    B) Filter coefficients over time
    C) Frequency reuse
    D) Sector angle
    **Answer: B**

63. Zero-forcing equalization aims to:
    A) Neutralize intersymbol interference completely
    B) Adjust power only
    C) Sector cells
    D) Increase noise
    **Answer: A**

64. LMS equalizer uses:
    A) Maximum likelihood
    B) Gradient descent to minimize error
    C) Static tap settings
    D) High complexity only
    **Answer: B**

65. Diversity combats fading by:
    A) Single antenna
    B) Multiple uncorrelated channels combined
    C) Cell splitting
    D) Frequency reuse
    **Answer: B**

66. Micro diversity uses:
    A) Separate sites
    B) Closely spaced antennas
    C) Time slots only
    D) One antenna
    **Answer: B**

67. Macro diversity uses:
    A) Same cell antennas
    B) Spatially separated base stations
    C) Equalizer taps
    D) Single antenna
    **Answer: B**

68. Transmitter diversity means:
    A) Multiple antennas at transmitter
    B) Only at receiver
    C) Larger cells only
    D) Sectorization
    **Answer: A**

69. Receiver diversity combines signals from:
    A) One antenna
    B) Multiple receive antennas
    C) Multiple frequencies
    D) Multiple base stations
    **Answer: B**

70. Equalizer tap count depends on:
    A) Doppler only
    B) Delay spread length
    C) Antenna height
    D) Cell radius
    **Answer: B**

71. LMS algorithm advantage:
    A) No training sequence
    B) Low complexity, adaptive
    C) Zero noise
    D) Infinite taps only
    **Answer: B**

72. Zero forcing drawback:
    A) No ISI removal
    B) Noise amplification
    C) Slow convergence
    D) Sectoring only
    **Answer: B**

73. Diversity gain improves:
    A) Spectral efficiency
    B) Link reliability
    C) Handoff frequency
    D) None
    **Answer: B**

74. Equalizer is placed:
    A) At transmitter only
    B) At receiver to correct ISI
    C) Inbetween cells
    D) None
    **Answer: B**

75. Combining techniques include:
    A) Maximal ratio combining
    B) Zero forcing only
    C) Sectoring
    D) Splitting
    **Answer: A**

76. Diversity types include:
    A) Frequency, time, space
    B) Color, shape
    C) Sectoring only
    D) Splitting only
    **Answer: A**

77. Adaptive equalizer needs:
    A) Constant channel
    B) Training/pilot sequence
    C) More cells
    D) Sectorization
    **Answer: B**

78. Macro diversity especially helps in:
    A) Indoor fading only
    B) Base-station diversity for coverage
    C) Equalization only
    D) Channel reuse
    **Answer: B**

79. Transmit diversity coding includes:
    A) Spatial multiplexing only
    B) Space–time coding
    C) Sectorization
    D) Reuse
    **Answer: B**

80. LMS stands for:
    A) Least Mean Squares
    B) Linear Mean System
    C) Layered Modulation Scheme
    D) Low-power Multiplexing
    **Answer: A**

---

## 🟢 Unit V – Multiple Antenna Techniques (20 MCQs)

81. MIMO stands for:
    A) Multiple-input multiple-output
    B) Mono input mono output
    C) Master inter machine output
    D) Multiple interface mod output
    **Answer: A**

82. Spatial multiplexing uses:
    A) Time division only
    B) Multiple streams in parallel via multiple antennas
    C) Larger cells
    D) Frequency reuse only
    **Answer: B**

83. Precoding requires:
    A) No knowledge of channel
    B) Channel state information (CSI) at transmitter
    C) Larger cell size
    D) Frequency reuse
    **Answer: B**

84. Beamforming focuses energy:
    A) Uniformly
    B) In desired spatial direction
    C) In code domain
    D) In frequency domain
    **Answer: B**

85. MIMO capacity grows with:
    A) Transmission power only
    B) Number of antennas and rich multipath
    C) Sectoring
    D) Larger cells
    **Answer: B**

86. Without CSI, diversity coding uses:
    A) Beamforming
    B) Space-time coding
    C) No diversity
    D) Splitting only
    **Answer: B**

87. Multi-user MIMO allows:
    A) Single user only
    B) Serving multiple users simultaneously spatially
    C) Only beamforming
    D) No CSI
    **Answer: B**

88. Capacity in non-fading channel is:
    A) Same as fading
    B) Lower
    C) Higher since no variability
    D) Zero
    **Answer: C**

89. Beamforming improves:
    A) Interference suppression and SNR
    B) Calls dropping rate
    C) Cell radius only
    D) Frequency reuse pattern
    **Answer: A**

90. Pre‑coding transforms data before transmission using:
    A) Random coding
    B) CSI to improve performance
    C) Sectoring only
    D) Reuse only
    **Answer: B**

91. Channel State Information helps determine:
    A) Cell size
    B) Optimal antenna weights
    C) Handoff thresholds
    D) Frequency reuse distance
    **Answer: B**
92. Rich multipath is beneficial for MIMO because:
    A) It degrades signal
    B) Provides distinct spatial signatures
    C) Causes scattering only
    D) Limits capacity
    **Answer: B**

93. Spatial multiplexing is limited by:
    A) Number of antennas on smaller side (tx or rx)
    B) Cell radius
    C) Sectoring angle
    D) Base station power
    **Answer: A**

94. MIMO‑OFDM uses:
    A) Only OFDM
    B) Spatial multiplexing + OFDM for high spectral efficiency
    C) Sectoring only
    D) Single stream only
    **Answer: B**

95. Spatial multiplexing without CSI at transmitter:
    A) Requires precoding
    B) Works with stream separation at receiver
    C) Impossible
    D) Degrades to SISO
    **Answer: B**

96. Diversity coding is used when:
    A) CSI unknown at transmitter
    B) CSI known fully
    C) Only one antenna
    D) Macro cells only
    **Answer: A**

97. Capacity in fading vs non-fading: fading can reduce average but MIMO helps restore via:
    A) Sectoring only
    B) Spatial multiplexing and diversity
    C) Splitting only
    D) Repeaters
    **Answer: B**

98. Precoding helps:
    A) Enhance beamforming and spatial multiplex gains
    B) Interference only
    C) Cell splitting only
    D) Sectoring
    **Answer: A**

99. Beamforming may reduce:
    A) Multipath
    B) Inter-cell interference
    C) Frequency reuse
    D) Handoff frequency
    **Answer: B**

100. MIMO capacity theoretically grows without bound as antennas grow under ideal conditions:
     A) True
     B) False
     **Answer: A** ---


Unit I MOBILE RADIO PROPAGATION 

1.1: PROPAGATION MECHANISMS - Introduction to radio wave propagation (scattering, reflection, diffraction), Large scale path loss, small scale fading 1.2: PROPAGATION MODELS - Free space propagation model-Two ray model  

Unit II CELLULAR CONCEPTS AND HANDOFF STRATEGIES 

2.1: CELLULAR CONCEPTS- Introduction –frquency reuse, channel assignment strategies 2.2: HANDOFF STRATEGIES- Prioritizing Handoffs-Practical Handoff Considerations

Unit III SYSTEM CAPACITY AND CAPACITY IMPROVEMENT TECHNIQUES 

3.1: INTERFERENCE AND SYSTEM CAPACITY- Co-channel interference - Adjacent Channel Interference-Interference- System Capacity 3.2: IMPROVING COVERAGE AND CAPACITY- Cell splitting and Cell sectoring - Repeaters for Range Extension – Micro cell Zone Concept

Unit IV MULTIPATH MITIGATION TECHNIQUES

 4.1:EQUALIZATION - Equalization – Adaptive equalization-Zero forcing and LMS algorithms 4.2:DIVERSITY - Diversity – Micro and Macro diversity – transmitter diversity, receiver diversity 

Unit V MULTIPLE ANTENNA TECHNIQUES 

5.1: MIMO SYSTEMS - MIMO systems – spatial multiplexing-System model-Pre-coding – Beam forming 5.2: MIMO CAPACITY - Channel state information-capacity in fading and non-fading channels


 

ECE - Advanced Communication Systems mcq questions , ACS MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

 

 Advanced Communication Systems mcq questions , ACS MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

 



## 🟢 Unit I: Digital Modulation Techniques

### ASK, FSK, PSK, QPSK (modulation/demodulation diagrams, operation, waveforms) + Basic OFDM

1. ASK stands for:
   A) Amplitude Shift Keying
   B) Angle Shift Keying
   C) Amplitude Side Keying
   D) Angle Side Keying
   **Answer: A**
2. In ASK, binary '1' is represented by:
   A) High amplitude carrier
   B) Low amplitude carrier
   C) Frequency shift
   D) Phase shift
   **Answer: A**
3. ASK is also known as:
   A) On‑Off Keying (OOK)
   B) Phase Modulation
   C) Frequency Modulation
   D) Quadrature Modulation
   **Answer: A**
4. FSK varies which parameter of the carrier:
   A) Amplitude
   B) Phase
   C) Frequency
   D) Power
   **Answer: C** 


5. In BFSK, '1' and '0' are represented by:
   A) Same frequency
   B) Two distinct frequencies
   C) Two amplitudes
   D) Phase shift
   **Answer: B**

6. Binary FSK demodulation can be:
   A) Coherent only
   B) Non‑coherent only
   C) Both coherent and non‑coherent
   D) Neither
   **Answer: C** 

7. PSK modulates which property of the carrier:
   A) Amplitude
   B) Frequency
   C) Phase
   D) Time
   **Answer: C**
8. BPSK uses:
   A) Four phase states
   B) Two phase states (0°, 180°)
   C) Two frequencies
   D) Two amplitudes
   **Answer: B**
9. QPSK transmits:
   A) 1 bit per symbol
   B) 2 bits per symbol
   C) 4 bits per symbol
   D) 0 bits per symbol
   **Answer: B**
10. QPSK uses which phase angles:
    A) 0°, 180°
    B) 0°, 90°, 180°, 270°
    C) Any continuous angle
    D) No phase shift
    **Answer: B**
11. BPSK and QPSK have:
    A) Different BER
    B) Same BER under equal SNR
    C) QPSK always better BER
    D) BPSK always better BER
    **Answer: B** 

12. OFDM stands for:
    A) Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
    B) Ordered Frequency Direct Modulation
    C) Orthogonal Frequency Direct Multiplexing
    D) Off Frequency Division Multiplexing
    **Answer: A**

13. OFDM divides data into parallel streams and transmits on:
    A) One carrier
    B) Orthogonal subcarriers
    C) Random frequency
    D) Phase‑shifted carriers
    **Answer: B**
14. The main advantage of OFDM is:
    A) Simple hardware
    B) Robustness against multipath and ISI
    C) Low peak-to-average power ratio
    D) Single carrier efficiency
    **Answer: B**
15. OFDM is used in:
    A) AM radio
    B) 4G/LTE, Wi‑Fi, DVB
    C) FM broadcast only
    D) Traditional analog systems
    **Answer: B**

16. FSK is more immune to noise than ASK because:
    A) Amplitude variations do not affect frequency detection
    B) ASK uses frequency changes
    C) FSK has variable amplitude
    D) FSK uses phase changes only
    **Answer: A** ([digimodstu.vercel.app][10], [Wikipedia][17], [Sanfoundry][9], [Sanfoundry][5])

17. Continuous-phase FSK avoids:
    A) Bandpass filters
    B) Abrupt phase changes
    C) Demodulation
    D) Frequency shifts
    **Answer: B**
18. A coherent detector detects:
    A) Amplitude only
    B) Phase with reference
    C) Frequency only
    D) No reference
    **Answer: B** 19. Which technique uses both amplitude and phase modulation:
    A) ASK
    B) FSK
    C) PSK
    D) QAM
    **Answer: D**
20. OFDM uses which transform at receiver:
    A) Fourier series
    B) FFT
    C) IFFT
    D) Laplace transform
    **Answer: B**
---

## 🟢 Unit II: Satellite Communication

Kepler’s laws, orbits, geostationary, Apogee/Perigee, active/passive satellites, mobile services, DTH, GPS, NavIC, TDMA/FDMA/CDMA

21. Kepler’s First Law states that orbits are:
    A) Circular
    B) Elliptical with Sun at one focus
    C) Parabolic
    D) Hyperbolic
    **Answer: B**

22. Geostationary orbit means satellite appears:
    A) Moving west-east
    B) Stationary over equator
    C) In polar orbit
    D) Changing position
    **Answer: B**

23. Apogee is:
    A) Closest point to Earth
    B) Farthest point in elliptical orbit
    C) Mid‑point
    D) Orbital speed reference
    **Answer: B**

24. Passive satellite:
    A) Amplifies and retransmits
    B) Just reflects signals
    C) Generates signals
    D) Mobile terminal
    **Answer: B**

25. Active satellite has:
    A) No transponder
    B) Transponder amplifying signals
    C) Passive reflector only
    D) User terminal
    **Answer: B**

26. DTH stands for:
    A) Direct To Home
    B) Digital Television Hub
    C) Digital Transmission House
    D) Direct Television Hub
    **Answer: A**

27. GPS provides:
    A) 2‑D position only
    B) 3‑D position and time
    C) 1‑D position only
    D) Only time
    **Answer: B**
28. NavIC is India’s:
    A) Data network
    B) Regional satellite navigation system
    C) Audio broadcast system
    D) Satellite dish
    **Answer: B**

29. TDMA divides access by:
    A) Frequency
    B) Code
    C) Time slots
    D) Space beams
    **Answer: C**
30. FDMA divides access by:
    A) Time
    B) Frequency
    C) Code
    D) Space
    **Answer: B**
31. CDMA spreads user data across:
    A) Time slots
    B) Frequency sub‑bands
    C) Entire spectrum using code
    D) Spatial beams
    **Answer: C**
32. Which multiple access is most suitable for digital satellite communications:
    A) FDMA
    B) TDMA
    C) CDMA
    D) SDMA
    **Answer: B**
33. CDMA requires:
    A) Simple filters
    B) Large bandwidth and complex circuitry
    C) No code assignment
    D) No timing sync
    **Answer: B** ([mcq.electronics-club.com][20])

34. Geostationary orbit altitude is approx:
    A) 300 km
    B) 36,000 km
    C) 3,600 km
    D) 100,000 km
    **Answer: B**

35. Satellite mobile services include:
    A) Only TV broadcast
    B) Internet, voice, emergency comms
    C) Only GPS
    D) Only military uses
    **Answer: B**

36. Kepler’s Second Law describes:
    A) Equal areas in equal times
    B) Orbit periods relation
    C) Circular orbits
    D) Apogee and perigee
    **Answer: A**

37. Kepler’s Third Law:
    A) Squares of periods proportional to cubes of semi-major axis
    B) Apogee and perigee distances equal
    C) Orbits are circular
    D) Satellite speed constant
    **Answer: A**

38. Satellite transponders operate in:
    A) C, Ku, Ka bands
    B) VHF only
    C) UHF
    D) Infrared
    **Answer: A** ([Reddit][21])

39. NavIC covers:
    A) Global region
    B) Regional coverage around Indian sub‑continent
    C) US only
    D) African coverage
    **Answer: B**

40. Demand‑assigned multiple access (DAMA) is:
    A) TDMA variant
    B) FDMA variant
    C) Dynamic allocation method
    D) Passive satellite type
    **Answer: C**
---

## 🟢 Unit III: Optical Communication

LED & LASER sources, PIN/APD detectors, connectors/splices/couplers, transmitter/receiver blocks, applications.

41. LED stands for:
    A) Light Emitting Diode
    B) Laser Emitting Device
    C) Light Emission Driver
    D) Light Energy Diode
    **Answer: A**

42. LASER differs from LED by having:
    A) Incoherent light
    B) Coherent, monochromatic beam
    C) Lower power
    D) Wider spectral width
    **Answer: B**

43. PIN photodiode uses:
    A) PN junction only
    B) Intrinsic layer between P and N
    C) Avalanche region only
    D) Metal-semiconductor junction
    **Answer: B**

44. APD stands for:
    A) Avalanche Photo Diode
    B) Amplified PIN Device
    C) Advanced Photodiode
    D) Active Photo Detector
    **Answer: A**

45. APD advantage over PIN:
    A) Lower sensitivity
    B) Internal gain via avalanche
    C) No bias required
    D) Simplicity
    **Answer: B**

46. Fiber splice is used to join:
    A) Electrical wires
    B) Optical fibers
    C) Coax cables
    D) Metal pipes
    **Answer: B**

47. Optical coupler function:
    A) Split or combine optical signals
    B) Provide mechanical support
    C) Convert light to electricity
    D) Clean connector ends
    **Answer: A**

48. In optical transmitter block diagram, data → driver → light source → fiber. Correct?
    A) Yes
    B) No
    **Answer: A**

49. Optical receiver includes:
    A) Light source
    B) Optical detector + amplifier + decision circuit
    C) Multiplexer
    D) Comb coupler
    **Answer: B**

50. Applications of optical fibers:
    A) Telephony, internet backbone, sensors
    B) Only voice
    C) Only mobile
    D) Radiowave only
    **Answer: A**

51. LED transmitter is:
    A) Expensive, high-speed
    B) Low-cost, lower bandwidth
    C) Coherent
    D) Narrow spectral width
    **Answer: B**

52. Semiconductor laser has:
    A) Broad linewidth
    B) Narrow linewidth, high modulation speed
    C) No bias need
    D) Low coherence
    **Answer: B**

53. PIN diode speed compared to APD:
    A) Faster
    B) Slower
    C) Same speed
    D) Zero speed
    **Answer: B**

54. Fiber connector example:
    A) RJ45
    B) ST, SC, LC
    C) BNC
    D) HDMI
    **Answer: B**

55. Multimode fiber is used for:
    A) Short distance links
    B) Long-distance comms
    C) Wireless only
    D) Satellite link
    **Answer: A**

56. Single‑mode fiber supports:
    A) Long distance, high bandwidth
    B) Short distance only
    C) No light propagation
    D) Microwave signals
    **Answer: A**

57. Coupler splits light ratio as:
    A) Electrical voltage
    B) 50/50, 70/30 etc.
    C) Time division
    D) Frequency bands
    **Answer: B**

58. Optical transmitter block includes:
    A) Laser, optical modulator, driver
    B) Detector only
    C) Multiplexer only
    D) Splice
    **Answer: A**

59. Receiver decision circuit converts:
    A) Optical to digital data bits
    B) Bits to light
    C) Electric to magnetic
    D) Frequency to amplitude
    **Answer: A**

60. Optical communication offers:
    A) Low bandwidth
    B) Immune to EMI, high bandwidth
    C) Low data rate only
    D) Poor security
    **Answer: B**

---

## 🟢 Unit IV: Microwave Communication

Propagation types, frequency ranges, transmitter/receiver/repeater blocks, horn antenna.

61. Ground wave propagation uses:
    A) Sky reflected waves
    B) Follows Earth's surface at low MHz
    C) Ionospheric bounce
    D) Satellite link
    **Answer: B**

62. Sky wave propagation uses:
    A) Ground reflection
    B) Space wave
    C) Ionosphere reflection
    D) Fiber optic
    **Answer: C**

63. Space wave propagation uses:
    A) Fiber link
    B) Microwave line-of-sight
    C) Ionosphere
    D) Ground bounce
    **Answer: B**

64. Microwave frequency range roughly is:
    A) 300 kHz–3 MHz
    B) 300 MHz–300 GHz
    C) 3 GHz–300 GHz
    D) 30 kHz–300 kHz
    **Answer: C**

65. Microwave transmitter block includes:
    A) Modulator, oscillator, power amplifier, antenna
    B) Detector only
    C) Fiber coupler
    D) Horn connector only
    **Answer: A**

66. Microwave receiver includes:
    A) Antenna, LNA, mixer, IF amplifier, demodulator
    B) Laser source
    C) Splice
    D) Baseband only
    **Answer: A**

67. Microwave repeater extends link by:
    A) Reflecting signals passively
    B) Receiving, amplifying and re-transmitting
    C) Changing frequency only
    D) Encrypting signals
    **Answer: B**

68. Horn antenna is:
    A) Omnidirectional
    B) Directive, used with waveguides
    C) Fiber-based
    D) Used for satellite only
    **Answer: B**

69. Horn antenna advantages:
    A) Broad beam
    B) High gain, low loss
    C) Cheap plastic
    D) Variable frequency operation
    **Answer: B**

70. Horn antenna is used in:
    A) Satellite dishes only
    B) Microwave links, radar, measurement
    C) Optical fiber
    D) AM radio
    **Answer: B**

71. In microwave link, line-of-sight distance must consider:
    A) Earth's curvature and Fresnel zone clearance
    B) Fiber loss only
    C) Satellite orbit
    D) Ionosphere delay
    **Answer: A**

72. Microwave frequency band not in use:
    A) Ku band
    B) VHF band
    C) Ka band
    D) X‑band
    **Answer: B**

73. Horn antenna feed type:
    A) Direct waveguide feed
    B) Fiber feed
    C) Coax feed only
    D) Dish feed
    **Answer: A**

74. Microwave links often use:
    A) Duplex communication
    B) Only simplex
    C) No antennas
    D) Optical only
    **Answer: A**

75. Space wave propagation is limited by:
    A) Ionosphere
    B) Line of sight
    C) Ocean reflection
    D) Underground structures
    **Answer: B**

76. Ground wave useful up to:
    A) GHz band
    B) Low HF to MF band (\~3 MHz)
    C) Optical frequencies
    D) Microwave range
    **Answer: B**

77. Horn antenna design shape:
    A) Parabolic reflector
    B) Flared metal waveguide
    C) Wire whip
    D) Yagi structure
    **Answer: B**

78. Microwave mixer block converts:
    A) Baseband to RF
    B) High‑frequency to IF
    C) Optical to electrical
    D) Amplitude to phase
    **Answer: B**

79. Microwave LNA is placed at:
    A) Transmitter
    B) Receiver antenna input
    C) Mixer output
    D) Horn mouth
    **Answer: B**

80. Repeater frequency planning avoids:
    A) Using same frequency for tx/rx
    B) Frequency shift between uplink/downlink
    C) Spatial reuse
    D) Duplex spacing
    **Answer: B**

---

## 🟢 Unit V: Digital Cellular Systems

GSM architecture, services, basics of GPRS.

81. GSM stands for:
    A) Global System for Mobile Communications
    B) General Satellite Mobile
    C) Global Signal Mode
    D) Government Subscriber Mobile
    **Answer: A**

82. GSM services include:
    A) Voice, SMS, data, location-based services
    B) Only voice
    C) Only SMS
    D) Optical fiber
    **Answer: A**

83. GSM architecture includes:
    A) MS, BSC, BTS, MSC, HLR, VLR, AUC
    B) Only BTS and MSC
    C) Only Baseband unit
    D) Only HLR
    **Answer: A**

84. GPRS stands for:
    A) General Packet Radio Service
    B) Global Packet Radio Service
    C) General Push Radio Service
    D) Global PSTN Radio Service
    **Answer: A**

85. GPRS adds which capability to GSM:
    A) Packet-switched data
    B) Only voice
    C) Optical communication
    D) Satellite link
    **Answer: A**

86. GSM uses which multiple access:
    A) FDMA + TDMA
    B) CDMA only
    C) FDMA only
    D) TDMA only
    **Answer: A**

87. GPRS supports:
    A) Circuit switching only
    B) Packet switching over GSM
    C) Optical fiber
    D) Microwave links
    **Answer: B**

88. Mobile Station (MS) refers to:
    A) Base station
    B) Subscriber handset and SIM
    C) Network controller
    D) Satellite dish
    **Answer: B**

89. BTS stands for:
    A) Base Transceiver Station
    B) Base Transfer System
    C) Bandwidth Transmission Station
    D) Broadband Terminal System
    **Answer: A**

90. MSC manages:
    A) Local cell only
    B) Switching between BSCs and external networks
    C) Optical fiber links
    D) Horn antenna
    **Answer: B**

91. HLR stores:
    A) Frequencies only
    B) Permanent subscriber info
    C) Optical transmitter data
    D) Horn parameters
    **Answer: B**

92. VLR stores:
    A) Permanent subscriber info
    B) Temporary info for roaming MS
    C) Optical coupler data
    D) Mixer parameters
    **Answer: B**

93. AUC provides:
    A) Voice routing
    B) Authentication and encryption keys
    C) Horn design
    D) Optical fiber status
    **Answer: B**

94. SMS in GSM is:
    A) Short Message Service
    B) Satellite Messaging System
    C) Subscriber Messaging Server
    D) Spatial Message Service
    **Answer: A**

95. GPRS C‑interface connects:
    A) BSC to SGSN
    B) MS to BTS
    C) MSC to PSTN
    D) None
    **Answer: A**

96. SGSN is:
    A) SMS server
    B) Serving GPRS Support Node
    C) Satellite Gateway Node
    D) Subscriber GNSS Node
    **Answer: B**

97. GPRS supports which IP protocol:
    A) IPv6 only
    B) IPv4
    C) Only voice
    D) Optical
    **Answer: B**

98. GPRS billing is:
    A) Flat rate only
    B) Based on data volume/time
    C) Only voice based
    D) Free
    **Answer: B**

99. GSM TRX carries:
    A) Control channel only
    B) Traffic channels
    C) Fiber signals
    D) Horn signals
    **Answer: B**

100. GSM frequency band in India is:
     A) 900 & 1800 MHz
     B) 800 MHz only
     C) 2.4 GHz
     D) 5 GHz
     **Answer: A**

---


Thursday, July 24, 2025

EDC MCQ QUESTION WITH ANSWERS

 


UNIT 1


🔌 Rectifiers


1. What is the main purpose of a rectifier?

A) To increase voltage

B) To convert DC to AC

C) To convert AC to DC

D) To amplify signals

✅ Answer: C) To convert AC to DC



2. Which of the following uses only one diode?

A) Full-wave rectifier

B) Bridge rectifier

C) Half-wave rectifier

D) None of these

✅ Answer: C) Half-wave rectifier



3. In a full-wave rectifier, the output frequency is:

A) Equal to input

B) Half of input

C) Double the input

D) Zero

✅ Answer: C) Double the input



4. Bridge rectifier uses how many diodes?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 6

✅ Answer: C) 4



5. What is the main advantage of a bridge rectifier over a center-tap rectifier?

A) More diodes used

B) Uses transformer

C) Requires no center tap

D) Expensive

✅ Answer: C) Requires no center tap





---


✂️ Clippers and Clampers


6. Which component is essential in a clipper circuit?

A) Diode

B) Capacitor

C) Inductor

D) Transistor

✅ Answer: A) Diode



7. A positive clipper removes the:

A) Positive half of the waveform

B) Negative half of the waveform

C) Both halves

D) Does not remove any part

✅ Answer: A) Positive half of the waveform



8. Which clipper allows current flow in only one direction and clips voltage beyond a specific level?

A) Biased clipper

B) Unbiased clipper

C) Negative clipper

D) Zener clipper

✅ Answer: A) Biased clipper



9. The component responsible for fixing the clamping level in a clamper circuit is:

A) Diode

B) Resistor

C) Capacitor

D) Battery or voltage source

✅ Answer: D) Battery or voltage source



10. What does a positive clamper do to a waveform?

A) Raises it above the zero level

B) Clips the top portion

C) Lowers it below zero level

D) Removes negative half-cycle

✅ Answer: C) Lowers it below zero level



11. Which of the following is not a type of clipper?

A) Positive clipper

B) Negative clipper

C) Series clipper

D) Center clipper

✅ Answer: D) Center clipper



12. Clampers are used to:

A) Change peak voltage

B) Change DC level

C) Clip the signal

D) Amplify input

✅ Answer: B) Change DC level



13. The basic components of a clamper circuit include:

A) Diode and transformer

B) Resistor and capacitor

C) Diode, resistor, and capacitor

D) Inductor and diode

✅ Answer: C) Diode, resistor, and capacitor





---


💡 Opto-Electronic Devices


14. Which diode emits light when forward biased?

A) Zener Diode

B) Photo-Diode

C) LED

D) Tunnel Diode

✅ Answer: C) LED



15. LED stands for:

A) Light Emitting Device

B) Light Emitting Diode

C) Linear Energy Diode

D) Low Energy Display

✅ Answer: B) Light Emitting Diode



16. Photo-diode operates in which biasing condition?

A) Forward bias

B) Reverse bias

C) Zero bias

D) Both

✅ Answer: B) Reverse bias



17. Photo-diode is used to:

A) Emit light

B) Regulate voltage

C) Detect light

D) Store charge

✅ Answer: C) Detect light



18. Which factor affects the intensity of light emitted by an LED?

A) Voltage drop

B) Temperature

C) Reverse current

D) Forward current

✅ Answer: D) Forward current



19. Which device generates current when exposed to light?

A) LED

B) Zener diode

C) Photo-diode

D) Varactor diode

✅ Answer: C) Photo-diode



20. In LED, the color of emitted light depends on:

A) Power supply


B) Current

C) Semiconductor material

D) Size of diode

✅ Answer: C) Semiconductor material


UNIT 2


⚙️ 1. BJT Basics & Working Principle


1. What does BJT stand for?

A) Bipolar Junction Terminal

B) Bipolar Junction Transistor

C) Bi-Junction Terminal

D) Bipolar Jet Transistor

✅ Answer: B) Bipolar Junction Transistor



2. Which of the following is a current-controlled device?

A) FET

B) MOSFET

C) BJT

D) UJT

✅ Answer: C) BJT



3. In an NPN transistor, the majority charge carriers are:

A) Holes

B) Electrons

C) Neutrons

D) Ions

✅ Answer: B) Electrons



4. What is the function of the base region in a BJT?

A) Acts as main current path

B) Controls the current flow

C) Blocks current

D) Stores energy

✅ Answer: B) Controls the current flow



5. In a PNP transistor, current flows from:

A) Collector to emitter

B) Base to collector

C) Emitter to collector

D) Collector to base

✅ Answer: C) Emitter to collector





---


🔄 2. BJT Modes of Operation


6. Which BJT mode is used for amplification?

A) Cut-off

B) Saturation

C) Active

D) Reverse

✅ Answer: C) Active



7. In the cut-off region of a transistor:

A) Base-emitter junction is forward-biased

B) Collector current is maximum

C) Both junctions are reverse-biased

D) Base-collector junction is forward-biased

✅ Answer: C) Both junctions are reverse-biased



8. When a transistor is in saturation:

A) Acts as an amplifier

B) Acts as an insulator

C) Acts as a switch (ON)

D) No current flows

✅ Answer: C) Acts as a switch (ON)



9. In active mode, the base-emitter junction is:

A) Reverse-biased

B) Forward-biased

C) No bias

D) Short-circuited

✅ Answer: B) Forward-biased



10. In which mode does a BJT act as a switch (OFF)?

A) Active

B) Saturation

C) Cut-off

D) Breakdown

✅ Answer: C) Cut-off


---


🧩 3. Transistor Configurations


11. Which transistor configuration gives high voltage gain?

A) Common Collector

B) Common Base

C) Common Emitter

D) All of the above

✅ Answer: C) Common Emitter



12. Which configuration is best for impedance matching?

A) Common Emitter

B) Common Base

C) Common Collector

D) None

✅ Answer: C) Common Collector



13. In CB configuration, the input is between:

A) Collector and base

B) Emitter and base

C) Base and emitter

D) Collector and emitter

✅ Answer: B) Emitter and base



14. In CE configuration, the output is taken from:

A) Emitter

B) Base

C) Collector

D) Ground

✅ Answer: C) Collector



15. Which configuration has unity current gain?

A) Common Emitter

B) Common Base

C) Common Collector

D) Both B and C

✅ Answer: B) Common Base





---


⚡ 4. Transistor Biasing


16. Why is biasing necessary in a transistor circuit?

A) To turn it off

B) To change resistance

C) To fix the operating point

D) To reduce noise

✅ Answer: C) To fix the operating point



17. The ratio of change in collector current to change in base current is called:

A) Alpha

B) Beta

C) Stability factor

D) Gain

✅ Answer: B) Beta



18. Which biasing method gives best stability?

A) Fixed bias

B) Collector-to-base bias

C) Voltage divider bias

D) Base resistor bias

✅ Answer: C) Voltage divider bias



19. Which of the following biasing circuits requires the least components?

A) Voltage divider

B) Fixed bias

C) Emitter feedback

D) Collector feedback

✅ Answer: B) Fixed bias



20. Stability factor (S) indicates:

A) Temperature resista

nce

B) Gain

C) Output power

D) Sensitivity to IC changes

✅ Answer: D) Sensitivity to IC changes


UNIT 3


🔌 1. Transistor as Amplifier and Switch


1. What does a transistor do in an amplifier circuit?

A) Blocks current

B) Increases signal strength

C) Acts as a filter

D) Stores energy

✅ Answer: B) Increases signal strength



2. When a transistor is used as a switch, in which regions does it operate?

A) Cut-off and Active

B) Active and Saturation

C) Saturation and Cut-off

D) Breakdown and Active

✅ Answer: C) Saturation and Cut-off



3. In the CE amplifier, the input is applied between:

A) Base and Collector

B) Emitter and Collector

C) Base and Emitter

D) Collector and Ground

✅ Answer: C) Base and Emitter



4. Which amplifier configuration offers both voltage and current gain?

A) Common Base

B) Common Collector

C) Common Emitter

D) None

✅ Answer: C) Common Emitter



5. What phase relationship exists between input and output in a CE amplifier?

A) 0°

B) 90°

C) 180°

D) 360°

✅ Answer: C) 180°





---


🎚️ 2. RC Coupled Amplifier


6. RC coupled amplifiers are mainly used for:

A) Power amplification

B) Low-frequency amplification

C) Radio transmission

D) High voltage control

✅ Answer: B) Low-frequency amplification



7. What is the main coupling element between stages in an RC coupled amplifier?

A) Transformer

B) Capacitor

C) Inductor

D) Diode

✅ Answer: B) Capacitor



8. Which is a disadvantage of RC coupled amplifiers?

A) Poor frequency response

B) High cost

C) Low power gain

D) Bulky design

✅ Answer: C) Low power gain



9. What is the bandwidth of an RC coupled amplifier dependent on?

A) Base resistor

B) Coupling capacitor and load

C) Supply voltage

D) Collector resistor

✅ Answer: B) Coupling capacitor and load



10. RC coupled amplifier gives maximum gain in which frequency range?

A) Low

B) Mid

C) High

D) Very high

✅ Answer: B) Mid





---


🔊 3. Power Amplifiers


11. Which class of power amplifier has the highest efficiency?

A) Class A

B) Class B

C) Class C

D) Class AB

✅ Answer: C) Class C



12. Which amplifier has output for the full 360° of the input cycle?

A) Class A

B) Class B

C) Class C

D) Class D

✅ Answer: A) Class A



13. Which power amplifier operates only for 180° of the input signal?

A) Class A

B) Class B

C) Class C

D) Class AB

✅ Answer: B) Class B



14. What is the major drawback of Class B amplifier?

A) Low gain

B) High distortion

C) Cross-over distortion

D) High cost

✅ Answer: C) Cross-over distortion



15. Which amplifier configuration helps eliminate cross-over distortion?

A) Class A

B) Class B

C) Push-pull

D) Cascode

✅ Answer: C) Push-pull





---


🧩 4. Multistage & Special Amplifiers


16. The purpose of using multistage amplifiers is to:

A) Reduce gain

B) Improve stability

C) Increase overall gain

D) Reduce power consumption

✅ Answer: C) Increase overall gain



17. What is a Darlington pair known for?

A) Low gain

B) High current gain

C) High voltage gain

D) Low input impedance

✅ Answer: B) High current gain



18. Cascode amplifier is a combination of:

A) Two CE amplifiers

B) CE and CB amplifiers

C) CB and CC amplifiers

D) CE and CC amplifiers

✅ Answer: B) CE and CB amplifiers



19. In a cascade amplifier, the output of one stage is:

A) Input to the power supply

B) Fed back to the input

C) Input to the next stage

D) Grounded

✅ Answer: C) Input to the next stage



20. CMRR is associated with which amplifier?

A) Class B


B) RC Coupled

C) Differential

D) Power

✅ Answer: C) Differential


UNIT 4


🔁 1. Feedback Amplifiers


1. What is feedback in an amplifier circuit?

A) Adding noise

B) Sending part of the output to input

C) Boosting power supply

D) Disconnecting input

✅ Answer: B) Sending part of the output to input



2. Which of the following is a type of feedback?

A) Linear and Nonlinear

B) Series and Parallel

C) Positive and Negative

D) Direct and Indirect

✅ Answer: C) Positive and Negative



3. What is the effect of negative feedback on bandwidth?

A) Decreases it

B) No effect

C) Increases it

D) Reverses polarity

✅ Answer: C) Increases it



4. Negative feedback in amplifiers improves:

A) Distortion

B) Noise

C) Stability

D) Input voltage

✅ Answer: C) Stability



5. Which type of feedback reduces gain but increases linearity?

A) Positive

B) Negative

C) Regenerative

D) Capacitive

✅ Answer: B) Negative



6. The four types of negative feedback amplifiers are based on:

A) Current and voltage feedback

B) Biasing methods

C) Resistor values

D) Capacitance type

✅ Answer: A) Current and voltage feedback



7. Negative feedback reduces:

A) Input resistance

B) Output resistance

C) Bandwidth

D) Distortion

✅ Answer: D) Distortion



8. In a voltage series feedback amplifier, the feedback is taken from:

A) Output current

B) Input voltage

C) Output voltage

D) Input current

✅ Answer: C) Output voltage





---


🌀 2. Theory of Oscillation


9. Which circuit stores energy in both inductor and capacitor?

A) Amplifier

B) Tank Circuit

C) Filter

D) Transformer

✅ Answer: B) Tank Circuit



10. Which is a basic condition for oscillation?

A) Zero gain

B) Infinite feedback

C) Barkhausen criterion

D) No input

✅ Answer: C) Barkhausen criterion



11. The Barkhausen criterion requires:

A) Loop gain = 0

B) Loop gain > 1

C) Loop gain = 1 with 0° phase shift

D) Output voltage = 0

✅ Answer: C) Loop gain = 1 with 0° phase shift



12. Oscillators are classified based on:

A) Frequency range

B) Phase difference

C) Feedback used

D) Type of wave generated

✅ Answer: C) Feedback used





---


🔊 3. Oscillator Circuits


13. Which oscillator uses a tapped inductor for frequency determination?

A) Colpitts

B) Hartley

C) Wien Bridge

D) Crystal

✅ Answer: B) Hartley



14. In a Colpitts oscillator, feedback is derived from:

A) Resistors

B) Inductors

C) Capacitor voltage divider

D) Transformer

✅ Answer: C) Capacitor voltage divider



15. The RC Phase Shift Oscillator uses how many RC sections?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

✅ Answer: C) 3



16. Wien bridge oscillator is commonly used to generate:

A) Sawtooth wave

B) Sine wave

C) Square wave

D) Triangular wave

✅ Answer: B) Sine wave



17. Which component provides stability in a Crystal Oscillator?

A) Capacitor

B) Inductor

C) Resistor

D) Quartz crystal

✅ Answer: D) Quartz crystal



18. Hartley oscillator uses which components to determine frequency?

A) R and C

B) L and C

C) Only R

D) Only C

✅ Answer: B) L and C



19. Which oscillator is most stable in frequency?

A) Hartley

B) RC Phase Shift

C) Wien Bridge

D) Crystal

✅ Answer: D) Crystal



20. Oscillator circuits generate output without:

A) Power supply

B) Input signal

C) Gr

ound connection

D) Feedback

✅ Answer: B) Input signal


UNIT 5


🔷 1. FET Basics

  1. What does FET stand for?
    A) Field Emission Transistor
    B) Field Energy Transistor
    C) Field Effect Transistor
    D) Fixed Electron Transistor
    Answer: C) Field Effect Transistor

  2. FETs are classified into:
    A) BJT and JFET
    B) JFET and MOSFET
    C) UJT and BJT
    D) SCR and TRIAC
    Answer: B) JFET and MOSFET

  3. The input impedance of FET is:
    A) Very low
    B) Moderate
    C) High
    D) Zero
    Answer: C) High

  4. FET is controlled by:
    A) Current
    B) Voltage
    C) Power
    D) Resistance
    Answer: B) Voltage

  5. Which terminal controls the flow of current in JFET?
    A) Drain
    B) Source
    C) Gate
    D) Body
    Answer: C) Gate


🧿 2. JFET – Junction Field Effect Transistor

  1. In N-channel JFET, the majority carriers are:
    A) Holes
    B) Electrons
    C) Protons
    D) Neutrons
    Answer: B) Electrons

  2. The characteristic curve of JFET is called:
    A) Load line
    B) Transfer curve
    C) Output curve
    D) Saturation curve
    Answer: B) Transfer curve

  3. The region where JFET operates as a constant current source is:
    A) Cut-off
    B) Ohmic
    C) Active
    D) Saturation
    Answer: D) Saturation

  4. Pinch-off voltage in a JFET is the voltage at which:
    A) The current becomes zero
    B) Gate current starts flowing
    C) Channel is fully open
    D) Current becomes constant
    Answer: D) Current becomes constant

  5. JFET has how many terminals?
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
    Answer: B) 3


⚙️ 3. MOSFET – Metal Oxide Semiconductor FET

  1. MOSFET has how many operating modes?
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
    Answer: A) 2 (Enhancement and Depletion)

  2. In N-channel Enhancement mode MOSFET, the channel is formed:
    A) At zero gate voltage
    B) By forward biasing gate
    C) When V_GS exceeds threshold
    D) At negative voltage
    Answer: C) When V_GS exceeds threshold

  3. The key difference between JFET and MOSFET is:
    A) Gate is insulated in MOSFET
    B) MOSFET has lower gain
    C) JFET uses holes as carriers
    D) JFET is faster
    Answer: A) Gate is insulated in MOSFET

  4. The substrate terminal in a MOSFET is also known as:
    A) Base
    B) Drain
    C) Body
    D) Channel
    Answer: C) Body

  5. Which MOSFET can operate with both positive and negative gate voltage?
    A) Depletion-mode
    B) Enhancement-mode
    C) BJT
    D) IGBT
    Answer: A) Depletion-mode


🌀 4. UJT – Uni Junction Transistor

  1. How many junctions does a UJT have?
    A) 1
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D) 4
    Answer: A) 1

  2. The UJT is mainly used as a:
    A) Amplifier
    B) Comparator
    C) Oscillator
    D) Switch
    Answer: C) Oscillator

  3. UJT has how many terminals?
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
    Answer: B) 3 (Emitter, Base1, Base2)

  4. The UJT relaxation oscillator produces which waveform?
    A) Sinusoidal
    B) Triangular
    C) Sawtooth
    D) Square
    Answer: C) Sawtooth

  5. The UJT is a:
    A) Voltage-controlled device
    B) Current-controlled device
    C) Temperature-controlled
    D) Resistance-controlled
    Answer: A) Voltage-controlled device


ECE DE MCQ QUESTION WITH ANSWER

 





ECE - DE - MCQ

UNIT 1

🔢 Number System and Codes

  1. What is the decimal equivalent of binary number 1101?
    A) 11
    B) 13
    C) 14
    D) 15
    Answer: B) 13

  2. Convert (45)₁₀ to binary:
    A) 101101
    B) 110101
    C) 101011
    D) 110011
    Answer: A) 101101

  3. What is the hexadecimal representation of (255)₁₀?
    A) FE
    B) FF
    C) F0
    D) F1
    Answer: B) FF

  4. (111101)₂ is equivalent to which octal number?
    A) 75
    B) 77
    C) 65
    D) 61
    Answer: A) 75

  5. What is 1's complement of binary number 100101?
    A) 011010
    B) 100010
    C) 011011
    D) 101010
    Answer: A) 011010

  6. 2's complement of 1100 is:
    A) 0011
    B) 0100
    C) 1111
    D) 0101
    Answer: D) 0101

  7. Perform binary addition: 1011 + 1101 = ?
    A) 11000
    B) 10100
    C) 10000
    D) 11110
    Answer: A) 11000

  8. Binary subtraction: 10010 - 01001 = ?
    A) 01001
    B) 10001
    C) 01101
    D) 11111
    Answer: A) 01001

  9. What is the BCD code for decimal number 39?
    A) 0011 1001
    B) 0100 0011
    C) 0011 0110
    D) 0111 0011
    Answer: A) 0011 1001

  10. Which ASCII code represents the character 'A'?
    A) 65
    B) 66
    C) 67
    D) 64
    Answer: A) 65

  11. What is the Gray code for binary number 1010?
    A) 1111
    B) 1110
    C) 1100
    D) 1001
    Answer: B) 1110


🔣 Boolean Algebra and K-Map

  1. According to Boolean algebra, A + A = ?
    A) 1
    B) A
    C) 0
    D) A'
    Answer: B) A

  2. Which is DeMorgan’s First Theorem?
    A) (A + B)' = A'B'
    B) (AB)' = A' + B'
    C) (A + B)' = A + B
    D) A' + B' = (AB)'
    Answer: A) (A + B)' = A'B'

  3. The expression AB + A'C is in which form?
    A) POS
    B) SOP
    C) Canonical SOP
    D) Canonical POS
    Answer: B) SOP

  4. Which Boolean expression represents the POS form?
    A) AB + AC
    B) (A + B)(A + C)
    C) A + B + C
    D) ABC + A'B'C'
    Answer: B) (A + B)(A + C)

  5. What is the simplified form of A + AB using Boolean algebra?
    A) A
    B) AB
    C) B
    D) A + B
    Answer: A) A

  6. What is the value of A ⊕ B (A XOR B) when A = 1 and B = 1?
    A) 1
    B) 0
    C) A
    D) B
    Answer: B) 0

  7. In 4-variable K-map, how many cells are there?
    A) 4
    B) 8
    C) 16
    D) 32
    Answer: C) 16

  8. In K-map, adjacent cells differ by:
    A) 2 bits
    B) 1 bit
    C) 3 bits
    D) No bits
    Answer: B) 1 bit

  9. Simplify using K-map: F(A, B, C) = Σ(1, 2, 3, 7)
    A) A'C + AC
    B) B + C
    C) A + B
    D) AB + BC
    Answer: A) A'C + AC

UNIT 2



🔘 Logic Gates – Symbols, Expressions, Truth Tables


1. Which logic gate has the output expression Y = A · B?

A) OR

B) AND

C) XOR

D) NOT

✅ Answer: B) AND



2. What is the output of an OR gate when both inputs are 0?

A) 1

B) 0

C) A

D) B

✅ Answer: B) 0



3. The NOT gate is also known as a:

A) Inverter

B) Repeater

C) Comparator

D) Amplifier

✅ Answer: A) Inverter



4. Which gate has the truth table where output is 1 only when inputs differ?

A) XOR

B) XNOR

C) NOR

D) AND

✅ Answer: A) XOR



5. What is the Boolean expression for a NAND gate?

A) A + B

B) A · B

C) (A · B)'

D) (A + B)'

✅ Answer: C) (A · B)'



6. The symbol with a curved back and one input is for which gate?

A) NOT

B) AND

C) OR

D) XOR

✅ Answer: A) NOT



7. Which logic gate gives a HIGH output only when both inputs are LOW?

A) NOR

B) NAND

C) AND

D) OR

✅ Answer: A) NOR



8. The truth table of XNOR gate gives output 1 when:

A) Inputs are different

B) Both inputs are 1

C) Both inputs are 0

D) Inputs are the same

✅ Answer: D) Inputs are the same



9. Which gate has the output expression Y = (A + B)'?

A) NAND

B) NOR

C) AND

D) OR

✅ Answer: B) NOR



10. Which of the following are Universal Gates?

A) AND and OR

B) XOR and XNOR

C) NAND and NOR

D) NOT and AND

✅ Answer: C) NAND and NOR





---


🧮 Logic Circuit Realization – Using Universal Gates


11. Which gate can be used to construct all other gates?

A) AND

B) OR

C) NAND

D) XOR

✅ Answer: C) NAND



12. How many NAND gates are required to construct a NOT gate?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

✅ Answer: A) 1



13. Using NOR gates, how do you create an OR gate?

A) 2 NOR gates

B) 3 NOR gates

C) 4 NOR gates

D) Not possible

✅ Answer: B) 3 NOR gates



14. Which combination gives AND gate using NAND gates?

A) Invert inputs, then NAND

B) NAND output, then invert

C) NAND output twice

D) NOR of inputs

✅ Answer: B) NAND output, then invert



15. To create an AND gate using only NOR gates, you need:

A) 2 gates

B) 3 gates

C) 4 gates

D) 1 gate

✅ Answer: C) 4 gates



16. Which gate’s output is 0 only when both inputs are 1?

A) OR

B) XOR

C) NAND

D) AND

✅ Answer: C) NAND



17. What is the implementation of A + B using NAND gates?

A) Invert A and B, then NAND

B) A NAND B

C) NAND followed by NOR

D) Cannot be done

✅ Answer: A) Invert A and B, then NAND



18. Which logic gate is used in parity checkers?

A) AND

B) OR

C) XOR

D) NOR

✅ Answer: C) XOR



19. XNOR gate is also called:

A) Even parity gate

B) Difference gate

C) NOT gate

D) Zero detector

✅ Answer: A) Even parity gate



20. The output of a NOR gate is 1 when:

A) Any one input is 1

B) B

oth inputs are 1

C) Both inputs are 0

D) One input is 0

✅ Answer: C) Both inputs are 0


UNIT 3


🔢 Arithmetic Circuits: Adders and Subtractors


1. What are the inputs to a half adder?

A) A, B, Carry-in

B) A, B

C) A, Carry-in

D) A, B, Carry-out

✅ Answer: B) A, B



2. The sum output of a half adder is:

A) A AND B

B) A OR B

C) A XOR B

D) A XNOR B

✅ Answer: C) A XOR B



3. Which of the following is used in a full adder but not in a half adder?

A) AND gate

B) XOR gate

C) Carry-in

D) OR gate

✅ Answer: C) Carry-in



4. How many inputs and outputs does a full adder have?

A) 2 inputs, 1 output

B) 3 inputs, 2 outputs

C) 2 inputs, 2 outputs

D) 3 inputs, 1 output

✅ Answer: B) 3 inputs, 2 outputs



5. The carry output of a full adder is:

A) A XOR B

B) A AND B

C) AB + BC + AC

D) A OR B

✅ Answer: C) AB + BC + AC



6. The difference output of a half subtractor is:

A) A XOR B

B) A AND B

C) A OR B

D) A NAND B

✅ Answer: A) A XOR B



7. Which component is required to design a full subtractor?

A) 1 half subtractor and 1 OR gate

B) 2 half subtractors and 1 OR gate

C) 2 half adders and 1 AND gate

D) 2 full adders

✅ Answer: B) 2 half subtractors and 1 OR gate



8. The borrow output in a half subtractor is:

A) A AND B

B) A' AND B

C) A XOR B

D) A OR B

✅ Answer: B) A' AND B





---


💾 Data Processing Circuits: Encoder, Decoder, MUX, DEMUX


9. How many output lines does a 4-to-2 encoder have?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 3

D) 1

✅ Answer: A) 2



10. The number of output lines in an 8-to-3 encoder is:

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 8

✅ Answer: B) 3



11. What is the function of an encoder?

A) Decodes input data

B) Generates sum and carry

C) Converts input to binary code

D) Multiplies input signals

✅ Answer: C) Converts input to binary code



12. Which logic circuit converts binary data from n input lines to a maximum of 2ⁿ output lines?

A) Encoder

B) Decoder

C) Multiplexer

D) Comparator

✅ Answer: B) Decoder



13. How many output lines does a 3-to-8 decoder have?

A) 3

B) 8

C) 6

D) 4

✅ Answer: B) 8



14. A 2-to-4 decoder has how many input and output lines?

A) 2 inputs, 4 outputs

B) 4 inputs, 2 outputs

C) 2 inputs, 2 outputs

D) 4 inputs, 4 outputs

✅ Answer: A) 2 inputs, 4 outputs



15. Which circuit has multiple input lines and selects one line to pass to the output?

A) Decoder

B) Encoder

C) Multiplexer

D) Demultiplexer

✅ Answer: C) Multiplexer



16. How many select lines are needed for a 4-to-1 multiplexer?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

✅ Answer: B) 2



17. What is the function of a demultiplexer?

A) Combines data lines

B) Selects input lines

C) Routes one input to multiple outputs

D) Generates binary numbers

✅ Answer: C) Routes one input to multiple outputs



18. A 1-to-4 demultiplexer requires how many select lines?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

✅ Answer: B) 2





---


✅ Parity Generator and Checker


19. A 3-bit even parity generator produces output 1 when:

A) Number of 1s is even

B) Number of 1s is odd

C) All bits are 0

D) All bits are 1

✅ Answer: B) Number of 1s is odd



20. The parity checker is

 used to:

A) Detect errors

B) Count 1s

C) Convert binary to decimal

D) Add bits

✅ Answer: A) Detect errors


UNIT 4


🔄 Flip-Flops and Latches


1. Which gate is used in basic SR Latch construction?

A) XOR

B) NAND

C) XNOR

D) AND

✅ Answer: B) NAND



2. A latch is a:

A) Combinational circuit

B) Sequential circuit without clock

C) Clocked sequential circuit

D) Multiplexer

✅ Answer: B) Sequential circuit without clock



3. What is the output of an SR latch when S = 0 and R = 0 (NAND-based)?

A) Invalid

B) No change

C) Reset

D) Set

✅ Answer: B) No change



4. In NOR-based SR latch, which input combination leads to invalid state?

A) S=1, R=1

B) S=0, R=0

C) S=1, R=0

D) S=0, R=1

✅ Answer: A) S=1, R=1



5. Which flip-flop stores one bit of data and has a clock input?

A) SR

B) D

C) T

D) All of these

✅ Answer: D) All of these



6. What is the purpose of the ‘Clock’ in a flip-flop?

A) Provide delay

B) Synchronize operations

C) Invert output

D) Store data

✅ Answer: B) Synchronize operations



7. Which of the following is not a type of triggering?

A) Level triggering

B) Pulse triggering

C) Edge triggering

D) Voltage triggering

✅ Answer: D) Voltage triggering



8. The output of a D flip-flop is:

A) Same as input

B) Always 0

C) Always 1

D) Inverted input

✅ Answer: A) Same as input



9. The JK flip-flop avoids the invalid state of which other flip-flop?

A) D

B) SR

C) T

D) Master-slave

✅ Answer: B) SR



10. When both J and K are high in a JK flip-flop, the output will:

A) Toggle

B) Set

C) Reset

D) No change

✅ Answer: A) Toggle





---


⏱️ More on Flip-Flops and Applications


11. T flip-flop is derived from which flip-flop?

A) JK

B) SR

C) D

D) Master-slave

✅ Answer: A) JK



12. Which flip-flop is commonly used in counters?

A) D flip-flop

B) T flip-flop

C) SR flip-flop

D) Clocked SR

✅ Answer: B) T flip-flop



13. Which flip-flop uses two clocked JK flip-flops to eliminate race condition?

A) D flip-flop

B) T flip-flop

C) Master-Slave JK

D) SR flip-flop

✅ Answer: C) Master-Slave JK



14. What is the purpose of PRESET and CLEAR in flip-flops?

A) Delay outputs

B) Eliminate race condition

C) Initialize or reset outputs

D) Increase speed

✅ Answer: C) Initialize or reset outputs



15. Flip-flops are mainly used in:

A) Memory devices

B) Adders

C) Encoders

D) Decoders

✅ Answer: A) Memory devices





---


🔢 Counters


16. What is a counter?

A) Logic adder

B) Memory cell

C) Sequential circuit that counts pulses

D) Encoder

✅ Answer: C) Sequential circuit that counts pulses



17. Asynchronous counter is also known as:

A) Parallel counter

B) Serial counter

C) Ripple counter

D) Decade counter

✅ Answer: C) Ripple counter



18. What is the major drawback of asynchronous counters?

A) High power

B) Limited speed

C) Propagation delay

D) High cost

✅ Answer: C) Propagation delay



19. Which counter has all flip-flops triggered by the same clock?

A) Ripple counter

B) Serial counter

C) Synchronous counter

D) Decade counter

✅ Answer: C) Synchronous counter



20. A decade counter counts from:

A) 0 to 9

B) 0 to 10

C) 0 to 15

D) 1 to 10

✅ Answer: A) 0 to 9


UNIT 5


🔁 Shift Registers


1. What is the primary function of a shift register?

A) Perform arithmetic operations

B) Store and transfer data

C) Decode binary values

D) Generate clock pulses

✅ Answer: B) Store and transfer data



2. In a Serial In Serial Out (SISO) shift register, data is:

A) Entered and removed in parallel

B) Entered in serial, read in parallel

C) Entered and read in serial

D) Stored permanently

✅ Answer: C) Entered and read in serial



3. Which shift register allows loading all bits at the same time and outputs them one by one?

A) Serial In Serial Out

B) Serial In Parallel Out

C) Parallel In Serial Out

D) Parallel In Parallel Out

✅ Answer: C) Parallel In Serial Out



4. Which shift register outputs all bits simultaneously after shifting in serial data?

A) SISO

B) PISO

C) SIPO

D) PIPO

✅ Answer: C) SIPO



5. Which shift register has both parallel input and parallel output?

A) SIPO

B) PIPO

C) SISO

D) PISO

✅ Answer: B) PIPO



6. A 4-bit shift register can hold:

A) 2 bits

B) 4 bits

C) 8 bits

D) 1 byte

✅ Answer: B) 4 bits



7. Which of the following is not an application of shift registers?

A) Serial-to-parallel conversion

B) Parallel-to-serial conversion

C) Data storage

D) Multiplication

✅ Answer: D) Multiplication



8. Shift registers operate based on:

A) Combinational logic

B) Counters

C) Clock pulses

D) Cache memory

✅ Answer: C) Clock pulses





---


💾 Memory – ROM and Types


9. ROM stands for:

A) Read On Memory

B) Random Only Memory

C) Read Only Memory

D) Rapid Output Memory

✅ Answer: C) Read Only Memory



10. Which type of ROM can be programmed once by the user?

A) PROM

B) EPROM

C) EEPROM

D) Flash

✅ Answer: A) PROM



11. Which ROM type can be erased using UV light?

A) PROM

B) EPROM

C) EEPROM

D) Flash

✅ Answer: B) EPROM



12. EEPROM can be erased using:

A) Ultraviolet light

B) Heat

C) Electrical signals

D) Magnetic field

✅ Answer: C) Electrical signals



13. Which ROM type is commonly used in USB drives and memory cards?

A) EEPROM

B) Flash

C) EPROM

D) PROM

✅ Answer: B) Flash



14. ROM is generally used for:

A) Temporary storage

B) Storing boot programs

C) Arithmetic operations

D) Cache memory

✅ Answer: B) Storing boot programs





---


🧠 Memory – RAM, Cache, and Comparison


15. What does RAM stand for?

A) Read and Memory

B) Random Access Memory

C) Rapid Access Module

D) Registered Arithmetic Memory

✅ Answer: B) Random Access Memory



16. Which type of RAM uses flip-flops to store data?

A) DRAM

B) Flash

C) SRAM

D) EEPROM

✅ Answer: C) SRAM



17. DRAM stores data using:

A) Flip-flops

B) Capacitors

C) Latches

D) Registers

✅ Answer: B) Capacitors



18. Which of the following is faster but more expensive?

A) DRAM

B) SRAM

C) ROM

D) PROM

✅ Answer: B) SRAM



19. Which of the following best compares RAM and ROM?

A) RAM is permanent, ROM is volatile

B) RAM is faster, ROM is slower

C) RAM stores firmware, ROM stores data

D) ROM loses data when power is off

✅ Answer: B) RAM is faster, ROM is slower



20. Cache memory is used to:

A) Store BIOS

B) Backup hard disk

C) Provide faster access to frequently used data

D) Stor

e output permanently

✅ Answer: C) Provide faster access to frequently used data





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Programming in C EEE MCQ QUESTIONS

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