Sunday, July 27, 2025

ECE - Advanced Communication Systems mcq questions , ACS MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

 

 Advanced Communication Systems mcq questions , ACS MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

 



## 🟢 Unit I: Digital Modulation Techniques

### ASK, FSK, PSK, QPSK (modulation/demodulation diagrams, operation, waveforms) + Basic OFDM

1. ASK stands for:
   A) Amplitude Shift Keying
   B) Angle Shift Keying
   C) Amplitude Side Keying
   D) Angle Side Keying
   **Answer: A**
2. In ASK, binary '1' is represented by:
   A) High amplitude carrier
   B) Low amplitude carrier
   C) Frequency shift
   D) Phase shift
   **Answer: A**
3. ASK is also known as:
   A) On‑Off Keying (OOK)
   B) Phase Modulation
   C) Frequency Modulation
   D) Quadrature Modulation
   **Answer: A**
4. FSK varies which parameter of the carrier:
   A) Amplitude
   B) Phase
   C) Frequency
   D) Power
   **Answer: C** 


5. In BFSK, '1' and '0' are represented by:
   A) Same frequency
   B) Two distinct frequencies
   C) Two amplitudes
   D) Phase shift
   **Answer: B**

6. Binary FSK demodulation can be:
   A) Coherent only
   B) Non‑coherent only
   C) Both coherent and non‑coherent
   D) Neither
   **Answer: C** 

7. PSK modulates which property of the carrier:
   A) Amplitude
   B) Frequency
   C) Phase
   D) Time
   **Answer: C**
8. BPSK uses:
   A) Four phase states
   B) Two phase states (0°, 180°)
   C) Two frequencies
   D) Two amplitudes
   **Answer: B**
9. QPSK transmits:
   A) 1 bit per symbol
   B) 2 bits per symbol
   C) 4 bits per symbol
   D) 0 bits per symbol
   **Answer: B**
10. QPSK uses which phase angles:
    A) 0°, 180°
    B) 0°, 90°, 180°, 270°
    C) Any continuous angle
    D) No phase shift
    **Answer: B**
11. BPSK and QPSK have:
    A) Different BER
    B) Same BER under equal SNR
    C) QPSK always better BER
    D) BPSK always better BER
    **Answer: B** 

12. OFDM stands for:
    A) Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
    B) Ordered Frequency Direct Modulation
    C) Orthogonal Frequency Direct Multiplexing
    D) Off Frequency Division Multiplexing
    **Answer: A**

13. OFDM divides data into parallel streams and transmits on:
    A) One carrier
    B) Orthogonal subcarriers
    C) Random frequency
    D) Phase‑shifted carriers
    **Answer: B**
14. The main advantage of OFDM is:
    A) Simple hardware
    B) Robustness against multipath and ISI
    C) Low peak-to-average power ratio
    D) Single carrier efficiency
    **Answer: B**
15. OFDM is used in:
    A) AM radio
    B) 4G/LTE, Wi‑Fi, DVB
    C) FM broadcast only
    D) Traditional analog systems
    **Answer: B**

16. FSK is more immune to noise than ASK because:
    A) Amplitude variations do not affect frequency detection
    B) ASK uses frequency changes
    C) FSK has variable amplitude
    D) FSK uses phase changes only
    **Answer: A** ([digimodstu.vercel.app][10], [Wikipedia][17], [Sanfoundry][9], [Sanfoundry][5])

17. Continuous-phase FSK avoids:
    A) Bandpass filters
    B) Abrupt phase changes
    C) Demodulation
    D) Frequency shifts
    **Answer: B**
18. A coherent detector detects:
    A) Amplitude only
    B) Phase with reference
    C) Frequency only
    D) No reference
    **Answer: B** 19. Which technique uses both amplitude and phase modulation:
    A) ASK
    B) FSK
    C) PSK
    D) QAM
    **Answer: D**
20. OFDM uses which transform at receiver:
    A) Fourier series
    B) FFT
    C) IFFT
    D) Laplace transform
    **Answer: B**
---

## 🟢 Unit II: Satellite Communication

Kepler’s laws, orbits, geostationary, Apogee/Perigee, active/passive satellites, mobile services, DTH, GPS, NavIC, TDMA/FDMA/CDMA

21. Kepler’s First Law states that orbits are:
    A) Circular
    B) Elliptical with Sun at one focus
    C) Parabolic
    D) Hyperbolic
    **Answer: B**

22. Geostationary orbit means satellite appears:
    A) Moving west-east
    B) Stationary over equator
    C) In polar orbit
    D) Changing position
    **Answer: B**

23. Apogee is:
    A) Closest point to Earth
    B) Farthest point in elliptical orbit
    C) Mid‑point
    D) Orbital speed reference
    **Answer: B**

24. Passive satellite:
    A) Amplifies and retransmits
    B) Just reflects signals
    C) Generates signals
    D) Mobile terminal
    **Answer: B**

25. Active satellite has:
    A) No transponder
    B) Transponder amplifying signals
    C) Passive reflector only
    D) User terminal
    **Answer: B**

26. DTH stands for:
    A) Direct To Home
    B) Digital Television Hub
    C) Digital Transmission House
    D) Direct Television Hub
    **Answer: A**

27. GPS provides:
    A) 2‑D position only
    B) 3‑D position and time
    C) 1‑D position only
    D) Only time
    **Answer: B**
28. NavIC is India’s:
    A) Data network
    B) Regional satellite navigation system
    C) Audio broadcast system
    D) Satellite dish
    **Answer: B**

29. TDMA divides access by:
    A) Frequency
    B) Code
    C) Time slots
    D) Space beams
    **Answer: C**
30. FDMA divides access by:
    A) Time
    B) Frequency
    C) Code
    D) Space
    **Answer: B**
31. CDMA spreads user data across:
    A) Time slots
    B) Frequency sub‑bands
    C) Entire spectrum using code
    D) Spatial beams
    **Answer: C**
32. Which multiple access is most suitable for digital satellite communications:
    A) FDMA
    B) TDMA
    C) CDMA
    D) SDMA
    **Answer: B**
33. CDMA requires:
    A) Simple filters
    B) Large bandwidth and complex circuitry
    C) No code assignment
    D) No timing sync
    **Answer: B** ([mcq.electronics-club.com][20])

34. Geostationary orbit altitude is approx:
    A) 300 km
    B) 36,000 km
    C) 3,600 km
    D) 100,000 km
    **Answer: B**

35. Satellite mobile services include:
    A) Only TV broadcast
    B) Internet, voice, emergency comms
    C) Only GPS
    D) Only military uses
    **Answer: B**

36. Kepler’s Second Law describes:
    A) Equal areas in equal times
    B) Orbit periods relation
    C) Circular orbits
    D) Apogee and perigee
    **Answer: A**

37. Kepler’s Third Law:
    A) Squares of periods proportional to cubes of semi-major axis
    B) Apogee and perigee distances equal
    C) Orbits are circular
    D) Satellite speed constant
    **Answer: A**

38. Satellite transponders operate in:
    A) C, Ku, Ka bands
    B) VHF only
    C) UHF
    D) Infrared
    **Answer: A** ([Reddit][21])

39. NavIC covers:
    A) Global region
    B) Regional coverage around Indian sub‑continent
    C) US only
    D) African coverage
    **Answer: B**

40. Demand‑assigned multiple access (DAMA) is:
    A) TDMA variant
    B) FDMA variant
    C) Dynamic allocation method
    D) Passive satellite type
    **Answer: C**
---

## 🟢 Unit III: Optical Communication

LED & LASER sources, PIN/APD detectors, connectors/splices/couplers, transmitter/receiver blocks, applications.

41. LED stands for:
    A) Light Emitting Diode
    B) Laser Emitting Device
    C) Light Emission Driver
    D) Light Energy Diode
    **Answer: A**

42. LASER differs from LED by having:
    A) Incoherent light
    B) Coherent, monochromatic beam
    C) Lower power
    D) Wider spectral width
    **Answer: B**

43. PIN photodiode uses:
    A) PN junction only
    B) Intrinsic layer between P and N
    C) Avalanche region only
    D) Metal-semiconductor junction
    **Answer: B**

44. APD stands for:
    A) Avalanche Photo Diode
    B) Amplified PIN Device
    C) Advanced Photodiode
    D) Active Photo Detector
    **Answer: A**

45. APD advantage over PIN:
    A) Lower sensitivity
    B) Internal gain via avalanche
    C) No bias required
    D) Simplicity
    **Answer: B**

46. Fiber splice is used to join:
    A) Electrical wires
    B) Optical fibers
    C) Coax cables
    D) Metal pipes
    **Answer: B**

47. Optical coupler function:
    A) Split or combine optical signals
    B) Provide mechanical support
    C) Convert light to electricity
    D) Clean connector ends
    **Answer: A**

48. In optical transmitter block diagram, data → driver → light source → fiber. Correct?
    A) Yes
    B) No
    **Answer: A**

49. Optical receiver includes:
    A) Light source
    B) Optical detector + amplifier + decision circuit
    C) Multiplexer
    D) Comb coupler
    **Answer: B**

50. Applications of optical fibers:
    A) Telephony, internet backbone, sensors
    B) Only voice
    C) Only mobile
    D) Radiowave only
    **Answer: A**

51. LED transmitter is:
    A) Expensive, high-speed
    B) Low-cost, lower bandwidth
    C) Coherent
    D) Narrow spectral width
    **Answer: B**

52. Semiconductor laser has:
    A) Broad linewidth
    B) Narrow linewidth, high modulation speed
    C) No bias need
    D) Low coherence
    **Answer: B**

53. PIN diode speed compared to APD:
    A) Faster
    B) Slower
    C) Same speed
    D) Zero speed
    **Answer: B**

54. Fiber connector example:
    A) RJ45
    B) ST, SC, LC
    C) BNC
    D) HDMI
    **Answer: B**

55. Multimode fiber is used for:
    A) Short distance links
    B) Long-distance comms
    C) Wireless only
    D) Satellite link
    **Answer: A**

56. Single‑mode fiber supports:
    A) Long distance, high bandwidth
    B) Short distance only
    C) No light propagation
    D) Microwave signals
    **Answer: A**

57. Coupler splits light ratio as:
    A) Electrical voltage
    B) 50/50, 70/30 etc.
    C) Time division
    D) Frequency bands
    **Answer: B**

58. Optical transmitter block includes:
    A) Laser, optical modulator, driver
    B) Detector only
    C) Multiplexer only
    D) Splice
    **Answer: A**

59. Receiver decision circuit converts:
    A) Optical to digital data bits
    B) Bits to light
    C) Electric to magnetic
    D) Frequency to amplitude
    **Answer: A**

60. Optical communication offers:
    A) Low bandwidth
    B) Immune to EMI, high bandwidth
    C) Low data rate only
    D) Poor security
    **Answer: B**

---

## 🟢 Unit IV: Microwave Communication

Propagation types, frequency ranges, transmitter/receiver/repeater blocks, horn antenna.

61. Ground wave propagation uses:
    A) Sky reflected waves
    B) Follows Earth's surface at low MHz
    C) Ionospheric bounce
    D) Satellite link
    **Answer: B**

62. Sky wave propagation uses:
    A) Ground reflection
    B) Space wave
    C) Ionosphere reflection
    D) Fiber optic
    **Answer: C**

63. Space wave propagation uses:
    A) Fiber link
    B) Microwave line-of-sight
    C) Ionosphere
    D) Ground bounce
    **Answer: B**

64. Microwave frequency range roughly is:
    A) 300 kHz–3 MHz
    B) 300 MHz–300 GHz
    C) 3 GHz–300 GHz
    D) 30 kHz–300 kHz
    **Answer: C**

65. Microwave transmitter block includes:
    A) Modulator, oscillator, power amplifier, antenna
    B) Detector only
    C) Fiber coupler
    D) Horn connector only
    **Answer: A**

66. Microwave receiver includes:
    A) Antenna, LNA, mixer, IF amplifier, demodulator
    B) Laser source
    C) Splice
    D) Baseband only
    **Answer: A**

67. Microwave repeater extends link by:
    A) Reflecting signals passively
    B) Receiving, amplifying and re-transmitting
    C) Changing frequency only
    D) Encrypting signals
    **Answer: B**

68. Horn antenna is:
    A) Omnidirectional
    B) Directive, used with waveguides
    C) Fiber-based
    D) Used for satellite only
    **Answer: B**

69. Horn antenna advantages:
    A) Broad beam
    B) High gain, low loss
    C) Cheap plastic
    D) Variable frequency operation
    **Answer: B**

70. Horn antenna is used in:
    A) Satellite dishes only
    B) Microwave links, radar, measurement
    C) Optical fiber
    D) AM radio
    **Answer: B**

71. In microwave link, line-of-sight distance must consider:
    A) Earth's curvature and Fresnel zone clearance
    B) Fiber loss only
    C) Satellite orbit
    D) Ionosphere delay
    **Answer: A**

72. Microwave frequency band not in use:
    A) Ku band
    B) VHF band
    C) Ka band
    D) X‑band
    **Answer: B**

73. Horn antenna feed type:
    A) Direct waveguide feed
    B) Fiber feed
    C) Coax feed only
    D) Dish feed
    **Answer: A**

74. Microwave links often use:
    A) Duplex communication
    B) Only simplex
    C) No antennas
    D) Optical only
    **Answer: A**

75. Space wave propagation is limited by:
    A) Ionosphere
    B) Line of sight
    C) Ocean reflection
    D) Underground structures
    **Answer: B**

76. Ground wave useful up to:
    A) GHz band
    B) Low HF to MF band (\~3 MHz)
    C) Optical frequencies
    D) Microwave range
    **Answer: B**

77. Horn antenna design shape:
    A) Parabolic reflector
    B) Flared metal waveguide
    C) Wire whip
    D) Yagi structure
    **Answer: B**

78. Microwave mixer block converts:
    A) Baseband to RF
    B) High‑frequency to IF
    C) Optical to electrical
    D) Amplitude to phase
    **Answer: B**

79. Microwave LNA is placed at:
    A) Transmitter
    B) Receiver antenna input
    C) Mixer output
    D) Horn mouth
    **Answer: B**

80. Repeater frequency planning avoids:
    A) Using same frequency for tx/rx
    B) Frequency shift between uplink/downlink
    C) Spatial reuse
    D) Duplex spacing
    **Answer: B**

---

## 🟢 Unit V: Digital Cellular Systems

GSM architecture, services, basics of GPRS.

81. GSM stands for:
    A) Global System for Mobile Communications
    B) General Satellite Mobile
    C) Global Signal Mode
    D) Government Subscriber Mobile
    **Answer: A**

82. GSM services include:
    A) Voice, SMS, data, location-based services
    B) Only voice
    C) Only SMS
    D) Optical fiber
    **Answer: A**

83. GSM architecture includes:
    A) MS, BSC, BTS, MSC, HLR, VLR, AUC
    B) Only BTS and MSC
    C) Only Baseband unit
    D) Only HLR
    **Answer: A**

84. GPRS stands for:
    A) General Packet Radio Service
    B) Global Packet Radio Service
    C) General Push Radio Service
    D) Global PSTN Radio Service
    **Answer: A**

85. GPRS adds which capability to GSM:
    A) Packet-switched data
    B) Only voice
    C) Optical communication
    D) Satellite link
    **Answer: A**

86. GSM uses which multiple access:
    A) FDMA + TDMA
    B) CDMA only
    C) FDMA only
    D) TDMA only
    **Answer: A**

87. GPRS supports:
    A) Circuit switching only
    B) Packet switching over GSM
    C) Optical fiber
    D) Microwave links
    **Answer: B**

88. Mobile Station (MS) refers to:
    A) Base station
    B) Subscriber handset and SIM
    C) Network controller
    D) Satellite dish
    **Answer: B**

89. BTS stands for:
    A) Base Transceiver Station
    B) Base Transfer System
    C) Bandwidth Transmission Station
    D) Broadband Terminal System
    **Answer: A**

90. MSC manages:
    A) Local cell only
    B) Switching between BSCs and external networks
    C) Optical fiber links
    D) Horn antenna
    **Answer: B**

91. HLR stores:
    A) Frequencies only
    B) Permanent subscriber info
    C) Optical transmitter data
    D) Horn parameters
    **Answer: B**

92. VLR stores:
    A) Permanent subscriber info
    B) Temporary info for roaming MS
    C) Optical coupler data
    D) Mixer parameters
    **Answer: B**

93. AUC provides:
    A) Voice routing
    B) Authentication and encryption keys
    C) Horn design
    D) Optical fiber status
    **Answer: B**

94. SMS in GSM is:
    A) Short Message Service
    B) Satellite Messaging System
    C) Subscriber Messaging Server
    D) Spatial Message Service
    **Answer: A**

95. GPRS C‑interface connects:
    A) BSC to SGSN
    B) MS to BTS
    C) MSC to PSTN
    D) None
    **Answer: A**

96. SGSN is:
    A) SMS server
    B) Serving GPRS Support Node
    C) Satellite Gateway Node
    D) Subscriber GNSS Node
    **Answer: B**

97. GPRS supports which IP protocol:
    A) IPv6 only
    B) IPv4
    C) Only voice
    D) Optical
    **Answer: B**

98. GPRS billing is:
    A) Flat rate only
    B) Based on data volume/time
    C) Only voice based
    D) Free
    **Answer: B**

99. GSM TRX carries:
    A) Control channel only
    B) Traffic channels
    C) Fiber signals
    D) Horn signals
    **Answer: B**

100. GSM frequency band in India is:
     A) 900 & 1800 MHz
     B) 800 MHz only
     C) 2.4 GHz
     D) 5 GHz
     **Answer: A**

---


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