1030235210 E-VEHICLE TECHNOLOGY (THEORY) MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS TEST

 

1030235210 E-VEHICLE TECHNOLOGY (THEORY)

MCQ QUESTION ONLINE TEST LINK MCQ TEST

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PART –A (ONE MARKS)

1. Which of the following is an advantage of Electric Vehicles (EV)?
   a)  Low emissions
   b) High noise
   c) Low efficiency
   d) Short lifespan

2. Which component stores electrical energy in EV?
   a) Motor
   b)  Battery
   c) Controller
   d) Converter

3. Which charging method uses no physical connector?
   a) Fast charging
   b) Plug-in charging
   c)  Wireless charging
   d) Solar charging

4. The life of an EV battery mainly depends on:
   a)  Temperature and usage
   b) Color of vehicle
   c) Motor type
   d) Size of tire

5. Which motor is commonly used in Electric Vehicles?
   a) DC motor
   b)  BLDC motor
   c) Stepper motor
   d) Synchronous motor

6. In a hybrid electric drive train, torque coupling occurs in:
   a)  Parallel hybrid
   b) Series hybrid
   c) Plug-in hybrid
   d) Series-parallel hybrid

7. Switched reluctance motor operates based on:
   a)  Electromagnetic attraction
   b) Permanent magnet
   c) Induced voltage
   d) Resistive force

8. Peak power source in hybrid vehicle provides:
   a) Steady power
   b)  Short-term high power
   c) Low torque
   d) Constant current

9. A key cybersecurity threat to autonomous EVs is:
   a) Brake fluid leakage
   b) Sensor misalignment
   c) Battery overheating
   d)  System hacking and sensor spoofing

10. Which semiconductor device is most suitable for EV power control?
    a) BJT
    b)  MOSFET
    c) Diode
    d) SCR

11. Which safety concern is unique to EVs?
    a)  High voltage risk
    b) Low temperature
    c) Fuel leakage
    d) Brake failure

12. Sensor-less control eliminates the use of:
    a) Motors
    b)  Physical sensors
    c) Converters
    d) Relays

13. The main advantage of a hybrid electric vehicle is:
    a)  Reduced emissions
    b) High fuel consumption
    c) Increased noise
    d) Less efficiency

14. Which hybrid layout uses both series and parallel features?
    a) Series
    b) Parallel
    c)  Series-Parallel
    d) Plug-in

15. Regenerative braking converts:
    a)  Kinetic energy to electrical energy
    b) Electrical to mechanical
    c) Thermal to chemical
    d) None

 

16. Noise reduction in HEV is achieved by:
    a)  Efficient motor design
    b) Fuel combustion
    c) Turbocharger
    d) Transmission gear

17. Fuel cells convert:
    a) Mechanical energy to electrical
    b)  Chemical energy to electrical
    c) Thermal energy to mechanical
    d) Solar to heat

18. The efficiency of a fuel cell mainly depends on:
    a)  Temperature and fuel type
    b) Color of electrodes
    c) Coolant used
    d) Battery capacity

19. Hydrogen is used as fuel in:
    a) Diesel engine
    b)  Fuel cell vehicle
    c) Hybrid car
    d) Petrol engine

20. The main disadvantage of fuel cells is:
    a)  High cost
    b) Low efficiency
    c) Low durability
    d) High emissions

1030233110 Electrical Machines – I (Theory ) MCQ QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

 

 

ELECTRICAL MACHINES I - 20 MARKS MCQ TEST LINK MCQ TEST LINK

 

1030233110 Electrical Machines – I (Theory)

PART – A ( ONE MARKS )

1.      The main principle of operation of a DC machine is based on:
 a) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction
b) Coulomb’s law
c) Lenz’s law
d) Kirchhoff’s law

 

2.      The function of a commutator in a DC machine is to:
a) Convert AC to DC
b) Convert DC to AC
 c) Reverse current direction
d) Supply excitation

 

3.      The armature core in a DC machine is laminated to:
 a) Reduce eddy current loss
b) Reduce hysteresis loss
c) Increase flux
d) Reduce copper loss

 

4.      The field winding of a shunt generator is connected:
 a) In parallel with armature
b) In series with armature
c) Across the commutator
d) To load

 

5.      In a transformer, the core is made of:
 a) Silicon steel
b) Cast iron
c) Aluminium
d) Brass

 

6.      The EMF equation of a transformer is:
 a) 4.44 f N Φm
b) 2.22 f N Φm
c) 4.44 N Φm
d) 2.22 N Φm

 

7.      The losses in a transformer are:
 a) Iron and copper losses
b) Friction losses
c) Windage losses
d) Mechanical losses

 

 

8.      Efficiency of a transformer is maximum when:
 a) Iron loss = Copper loss
b) Iron loss > Copper loss
c) Iron loss < Copper loss
d) Load is full

 

9.      The torque developed in a DC motor depends on:
 a) Flux and armature current
b) Speed and voltage
c) Resistance and current
d) Load and efficiency

 

10.  The back EMF in a DC motor opposes:
 a) The applied voltage
b) The armature current
c) The field current
d) The load torque

 

11.  The speed of a DC shunt motor is nearly:
 a) Constant
b) Zero
c) Variable
d) Inversely proportional to voltage

 

12.  The function of the starter in a DC motor is to:
 a) Limit starting current
b) Increase torque
c) Increase speed
d) Control voltage

 

13.  Which type of three-phase transformer connection is best suited for stepping up voltage at power generation stations?
a) Star–Star (Y–Y)
b) Delta–Delta (Δ–Δ)
c) Star–Delta (Y–Δ)
 d) Delta–Star (Δ–Y)

 

14.  What is the primary purpose of a Buchholz relay in a transformer?
a) Regulating voltage
b) Cooling the transformer
 c) Detecting internal faults
d) Measuring oil level

 

15.  Which cooling method in transformers uses radiators and fans for heat dissipation?
a) ONAN
 b) ONAF
c) OFAF
d) OFWF

 

16.  In a transformer, ON-load tap changers are used to:
a) Cool the transformer during heavy load
 b) Adjust the voltage without interrupting supply
c) Change phase sequence
d) Disconnect the transformer from load

 

17.  What is the main purpose of preventive maintenance in electrical machines?
a) To repair after breakdown
b) To ensure regular machine downtime
 c) To prevent unexpected failures and extend equipment life
d) To increase the noise level

 

18.  A common cause of sparking at the commutator in a DC machine is:
a) Low field resistance
b) Proper brush alignment
c) Overheating of the rotor shaft
 d) Worn-out or misaligned brushes

 

19.  The Breakdown Voltage (BDV) test on transformer oil is used to measure:
a) Oil temperature
b) Oil viscosity
 c) Dielectric strength of the oil
d) Oil volume

 

20.  Which instrument is commonly used to measure earth resistance in electrical installations?
a) Megger
b) Clamp meter
 c) Earth tester
d) Multimeter

 

1010235110 – Design Of Rcc Structures (Limit State Method)

 

1010235110 – Design Of Rcc Structures (Limit State Method)

 ATTEND 20 MARKS MCQ TEST MCQ TEST LINK

 

1. Curtailment of bars is permitted when:
a) Shear is minimum
b) Moment is reduced
c) Sufficient development length is available
 d) All of the above

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2. In singly reinforced beam, steel is provided in the:
a) Compression zone only
 b) Tension zone only
c) Both zones
d) Web only

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3. Effective span of a cantilever beam is:
a) Clear span
 b) Clear span + d
c) Clear span + 0.5d

d) Clear span + 2d

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4. Which type of section occurs when xu < xu,lim in a beam?
 a) Under-reinforced
b) Balanced
c) Over-reinforced
d) Brittle

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5. What is the main purpose of a landing in a staircase?
a) To reduce the number of steps
 b) To provide a resting place and change direction
c) To make the staircase look wider
d) To reduce the cost of construction

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6. For a simply supported beam of length (l) under a UDL (w), the maximum shear force at the support is:
a) wl
 b) wl/2
c) wl/4
d) wl/8

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7. The formula for the shear force resisted by vertical stirrups (Vus) is:
 a) 0.87 fy Asv d / Sv
b) 0.87 fy Asv Sv / d
c) τc b d
d) τv b d

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8. The minimum width of a staircase for residential buildings should be:
a) 600 mm
b) 750 mm
✅ c) 900 mm
d) 1200 mm

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9. As per IS 456:2000, for continuous beams or slabs, if support width is wider than 1/12 of clear span (or) 600 mm whichever less, for end span with one end fixed and the other continuous or intermediate spans, the effective span is:
 b) Centre-to-centre distance
a) Average of support widths
c) Clear span between supports
d) Not defined

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10. As per IS 456:2000, for continuous beams or slabs, if support width is wider than 1/12 of clear span (or) 600 mm whichever less, for end span with one end free and the other continuous, the effective span is:
a) Clear span + half the width of discontinuous support
b) Clear span + half the effective depth
 c) Greater of (A) & (B)
d) Lesser of (A) & (B)**

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11. As per IS 456:2000, for continuous beams or slabs, if support width is less than 1/12 of clear span, the effective span is:
a) Clear span + Effective Depth
 b) Centre-to-centre of supports
c) Greater of (A) & (B)
d) Lesser of (A) & (B)

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12. For imposed load (not fixed), the coefficient for span moment near middle of end span is:
 a) +1/16
b) -1/16
c) +1/10
d) -1/10

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13. Effective span of a simply supported one-way slab is:
a) Clear span + effective depth
b) Clear span + width of support
 c) Lesser of (clear span + effective depth) or center-to-center of supports
d) Clear span only

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14. The width of the middle strip in a two-way slab is taken as:
a) The full width of the slab
 b) Half of the slab width
c) 0.125 times the slab length
d) 0.75 times of slab length

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15. In a two-way slab, torsional reinforcement is provided at:
a) Edges
b) Center
 c) Corners
d) Mid-span

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16. The width of the edge strip in a two-way slab is taken as:
a) The full width of the slab
 b) One-half of the slab width
c) 0.125 times the slab length
d) 0.75 times slab length

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17. Long columns fail due to:
 a) Buckling
b) Crushing
c) Bending
d) Torsion

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18. The footing is considered safe when:
a) Shear > moment
 b) Soil pressure ≤ SBC
c) Load > area
d) Reinforcement is more

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19. The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars used in columns shall be:
a) 8 mm
b) 10 mm
 c) 12 mm
d) 16 mm

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20. Which footing is preferred for two columns close together?
a) Strip footing
 b) Combined footing
c) Sloped footing
d) Mat footing