ECE - DCN - Data Communication and Networking MCQ QUESTIONS, DCN MCQ QUESTIONS

 

DCN MCQ QUESTIONS

### ✅ **Unit I: Fundamentals of Data Communication (20 MCQs)**

1. **What is Data Communication?**
   A) Storing data
   B) Displaying data
   C) Transferring data from one device to another
   D) Encrypting data
   **Answer: C**

2. **Which of the following is NOT a component of data communication?**
   A) Message
   B) Sender
   C) Cable
   D) Browser
   **Answer: D**

3. **Which data flow mode allows transmission in both directions simultaneously?**
   A) Simplex
   B) Half Duplex
   C) Full Duplex
   D) None
   **Answer: C**

4. **Which type of network topology connects every device to every other device?**
   A) Star
   B) Ring
   C) Mesh
   D) Bus
   **Answer: C**

5. **Which is an example of LAN?**
   A) Internet
   B) Office network
   C) Telephone system
   D) Satellite system
   **Answer: B**

6. **The term 'Throughput' refers to:**
   A) Security level
   B) Number of bits sent in a second
   C) Distance between devices
   D) Cable quality
   **Answer: B**

7. **Which one is NOT a type of network connection?**
   A) Point-to-Point
   B) Multipoint
   C) Ring
   D) Mesh
   **Answer: D**

8. **Which topology has a central hub?**
   A) Ring
   B) Bus
   C) Mesh
   D) Star
   **Answer: D**

9. **Which device is considered as both sender and receiver?**
   A) Transceiver
   B) Repeater
   C) Hub
   D) Switch
   **Answer: A**

10. **Which is not part of ISO-OSI Model?**
    A) Application
    B) Transport
    C) Firewall
    D) Session
    **Answer: C**

11. **How many layers are in the OSI model?**
    A) 5
    B) 6
    C) 7
    D) 4
    **Answer: C**

12. **In the OSI model, routing is done at:**
    A) Physical layer
    B) Data link layer
    C) Network layer
    D) Application layer
    **Answer: C**

13. **Which model has only 4 layers?**
    A) OSI
    B) TCP/IP
    C) Both A and B
    D) None
    **Answer: B**

14. **TCP/IP is a \_\_\_\_\_\_ architecture.**
    A) Theoretical
    B) Practical
    C) Experimental
    D) Obsolete
    **Answer: B**

15. **Which layer is responsible for encryption and decryption in OSI model?**
    A) Session
    B) Transport
    C) Presentation
    D) Network
    **Answer: C**

16. **LAN stands for:**
    A) Long Area Network
    B) Local Access Network
    C) Local Area Network
    D) Large Area Network
    **Answer: C**

17. **A network that covers a city is called:**
    A) LAN
    B) WAN
    C) MAN
    D) PAN
    **Answer: C**

18. **Which of these is a type of data representation?**
    A) Distance
    B) Image
    C) Temperature
    D) Speed
    **Answer: B**

19. **Which of these is NOT a network topology?**
    A) Mesh
    B) Tree
    C) Chain
    D) Bus
    **Answer: C**

20. **Full Duplex communication means:**
    A) One way only
    B) Alternating turns
    C) Simultaneous both ways
    D) No communication
    **Answer: C**



### ✅ **Unit II: PHYSICAL LAYER (20 MCQs)**

1. **What is Multiplexing?**
   A) Data storage
   B) Combining signals for transmission
   C) Breaking messages
   D) Encrypting messages
   **Answer: B**

2. **FDM stands for:**
   A) Frequency Distribution Multiplexing
   B) Frequency Domain Management
   C) Frequency Division Multiplexing
   D) Frame Data Multiplexing
   **Answer: C**

3. **Which multiplexing uses different colors of light?**
   A) FDM
   B) TDM
   C) WDM
   D) CDMA
   **Answer: C**

4. **TDM is based on:**
   A) Amplitude
   B) Frequency
   C) Time slots
   D) Distance
   **Answer: C**

5. **Which is not a guided media?**
   A) Twisted Pair
   B) Coaxial Cable
   C) Fiber Optic
   D) Microwave
   **Answer: D**

6. **RJ-45 is commonly used with:**
   A) Coaxial cables
   B) Fiber cables
   C) UTP cables
   D) Optical switches
   **Answer: C**

7. **Which cable has BNC connectors?**
   A) Fiber-optic
   B) UTP
   C) STP
   D) Coaxial
   **Answer: D**

8. **Which cable offers highest bandwidth?**
   A) Twisted pair
   B) Coaxial
   C) Fiber-optic
   D) Parallel cable
   **Answer: C**

9. **Which connector is used in fiber-optic cables?**
   A) RJ-11
   B) SC
   C) BNC
   D) D-Sub
   **Answer: B**

10. **Which is NOT a fiber-optic connector?**
    A) SC
    B) ST
    C) RJ-45
    D) LC
    **Answer: C**

11. **Microwaves are:**
    A) Used for underwater communication
    B) A type of guided media
    C) A type of wireless media
    D) Always used in LAN
    **Answer: C**

12. **Infrared is used in:**
    A) Underwater cables
    B) TV remotes
    C) Fiber cables
    D) LAN cables
    **Answer: B**

13. **Which media is used in satellites?**
    A) Twisted pair
    B) Fiber
    C) Microwave
    D) Coaxial
    **Answer: C**

14. **Which media is immune to electromagnetic interference?**
    A) Coaxial
    B) Fiber-optic
    C) UTP
    D) STP
    **Answer: B**

15. **Which media is most cost-effective?**
    A) Fiber-optic
    B) Microwave
    C) Coaxial
    D) UTP
    **Answer: D**

16. **Circuit switching is used in:**
    A) Internet
    B) Email
    C) Telephone networks
    D) VoIP
    **Answer: C**

17. **In packet-switched networks, data is sent in:**
    A) Circuits
    B) Streams
    C) Packets
    D) Cables
    **Answer: C**

18. **Datagram approach is associated with:**
    A) Circuit switching
    B) TDM
    C) Packet switching
    D) FDM
    **Answer: C**

19. **Virtual circuit networks are a feature of:**
    A) Circuit switching
    B) Packet switching
    C) Hybrid networks
    D) Bus networks
    **Answer: B**

20. **Unguided media includes all except:**
    A) Radio wave
    B) Microwave
    C) Twisted pair
    D) Infrared
    **Answer: C**

---

### ✅ **Unit III: DATA LINK LAYER (20 MCQs)**

1. **What is framing in data link layer?**
   A) Breaking the cable
   B) Arranging devices
   C) Dividing stream into frames
   D) Encrypting data
   **Answer: C**

2. **Which is not a type of framing?**
   A) Fixed size
   B) Variable size
   C) Dynamic size
   D) Byte stuffing
   **Answer: C**

3. **What is the purpose of flow control?**
   A) Increase errors
   B) Improve security
   C) Match sender and receiver speeds
   D) Break transmission
   **Answer: C**

4. **Stop-and-wait protocol is used for:**
   A) Circuit switching
   B) Flow control
   C) Frequency control
   D) Multiplexing
   **Answer: B**

5. **Which protocol handles noisy channels with retransmission?**
   A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ
   B) Go-Back-N
   C) Selective Repeat
   D) All of the above
   **Answer: D**

6. **In Go-Back-N ARQ, if error is found:**
   A) Only that frame is resent
   B) All frames from error are resent
   C) All previous frames are resent
   D) No frame is resent
   **Answer: B**

7. **Which ARQ protocol is most efficient?**
   A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ
   B) Go-Back-N
   C) Selective Repeat
   D) FDM
   **Answer: C**

8. **Which is an error-detection technique?**
   A) Parity check
   B) CRC
   C) Checksum
   D) All
   **Answer: D**

9. **Which of these is an error-correcting code?**
   A) Hamming code
   B) CRC
   C) Parity
   D) Bit stuffing
   **Answer: A**

10. **Which protocol sends multiple frames before waiting for ACK?**
    A) Stop-and-Wait
    B) Go-Back-N
    C) TDM
    D) CRC
    **Answer: B**

11. **Which protocol handles lost or corrupted frames efficiently?**
    A) Selective Repeat
    B) Go-Back-N
    C) Stop-and-Wait
    D) FDM
    **Answer: A**

12. **ARQ stands for:**
    A) Automatic Response Query
    B) Automatic Repeat Query
    C) Analog Repeat Query
    D) Advanced Repeat Quality
    **Answer: B**

13. **Which layer is responsible for error detection?**
    A) Transport
    B) Network
    C) Data Link
    D) Application
    **Answer: C**

14. **Bit stuffing is used in:**
    A) Framing
    B) Flow control
    C) Error detection
    D) Transmission media
    **Answer: A**

15. **Framing helps in:**
    A) Addressing
    B) Identifying message boundaries
    C) Security
    D) DNS resolution
    **Answer: B**

16. **Fixed-size frames are easier to:**
    A) Process
    B) Encrypt
    C) Route
    D) Compress
    **Answer: A**

17. **Which protocol uses a sliding window concept?**
    A) Go-Back-N
    B) Selective Repeat
    C) Both A & B
    D) Stop-and-Wait
    **Answer: C**

18. **In which protocol is ACK required for every frame?**
    A) Go-Back-N
    B) Selective Repeat
    C) Stop-and-Wait
    D) TDM
    **Answer: C**

19. **Which error occurs due to extra or missing bits?**
    A) Burst error
    B) Single-bit error
    C) Redundancy
    D) Hamming
    **Answer: A**

20. **Which of these is NOT used for error detection?**
    A) CRC
    B) Parity
    C) Hamming
    D) Checksum
    **Answer: C**



### ✅ **Unit IV: NETWORK LAYER (20 MCQs)**

1. **Which device operates at the network layer?**
   A) Hub
   B) Switch
   C) Router
   D) Repeater
   **Answer: C**

2. **Which device is used to connect different networks with different protocols?**
   A) Switch
   B) Hub
   C) Bridge
   D) Gateway
   **Answer: D**

3. **Which addressing format is used in IPv4?**
   A) Hexadecimal
   B) Octal
   C) Dot-decimal
   D) Binary
   **Answer: C**

4. **Which class of IP address has a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0?**
   A) Class A
   B) Class B
   C) Class C
   D) Class D
   **Answer: C**

5. **What is the main reason for moving to IPv6?**
   A) Faster speeds
   B) Security
   C) More address space
   D) Simpler headers
   **Answer: C**

6. **IPv6 uses how many bits for addressing?**
   A) 32
   B) 64
   C) 128
   D) 256
   **Answer: C**

7. **Which of the following is NOT an IPv4 class?**
   A) Class A
   B) Class B
   C) Class D
   D) Class F
   **Answer: D**

8. **Which protocol resolves IP address to MAC address?**
   A) ICMP
   B) ARP
   C) RARP
   D) DNS
   **Answer: B**

9. **Which protocol helps assign IP addresses to devices without manual configuration?**
   A) ARP
   B) ICMP
   C) DHCP
   D) FTP
   **Answer: C**

10. **What is IGMP used for?**
    A) Address translation
    B) Email transfer
    C) Managing group memberships
    D) File transfer
    **Answer: C**

11. **ICMP is used for:**
    A) Sending files
    B) Error reporting and diagnostics
    C) Encrypting data
    D) Domain name resolution
    **Answer: B**

12. **What is the function of a bridge?**
    A) Connects different networks
    B) Connects similar networks
    C) Converts analog to digital
    D) Encrypts messages
    **Answer: B**

13. **A switch operates at which OSI layer?**
    A) Network
    B) Data Link
    C) Physical
    D) Transport
    **Answer: B**

14. **Which IP address class supports 16 million hosts?**
    A) Class A
    B) Class B
    C) Class C
    D) Class D
    **Answer: A**

15. **A static IP address is:**
    A) Changed frequently
    B) Assigned temporarily
    C) Fixed and manually configured
    D) Invalid
    **Answer: C**

16. **RARP is used to:**
    A) Translate MAC to IP
    B) Translate IP to MAC
    C) Encrypt data
    D) Route data
    **Answer: A**

17. **Subnetting helps to:**
    A) Combine networks
    B) Divide large networks into smaller ones
    C) Encrypt data
    D) Convert analog to digital
    **Answer: B**

18. **Which address is assigned dynamically?**
    A) Static IP
    B) Loopback IP
    C) Dynamic IP
    D) Broadcast IP
    **Answer: C**

19. **Which protocol is used to find MAC address from IP?**
    A) ICMP
    B) RARP
    C) ARP
    D) DNS
    **Answer: C**

20. **A router uses which addressing scheme?**
    A) Physical
    B) Logical
    C) Symbolic
    D) Manual
    **Answer: B**

---

### ✅ **Unit V: TRANSPORT LAYER, APPLICATION LAYER & NETWORK SECURITY (20 MCQs)**

1. **Which protocol provides reliable connection-oriented service?**
   A) UDP
   B) IP
   C) TCP
   D) FTP
   **Answer: C**

2. **Which protocol is used for fast, connectionless communication?**
   A) FTP
   B) TCP
   C) UDP
   D) ICMP
   **Answer: C**

3. **The TCP segment header includes:**
   A) Source & destination ports
   B) MAC address
   C) IP address
   D) URL
   **Answer: A**

4. **Which transport protocol is best for video streaming?**
   A) TCP
   B) UDP
   C) FTP
   D) ICMP
   **Answer: B**

5. **Which of the following uses port 80?**
   A) FTP
   B) DNS
   C) HTTP
   D) SMTP
   **Answer: C**

6. **Which protocol is used to send emails?**
   A) SMTP
   B) FTP
   C) HTTP
   D) DHCP
   **Answer: A**

7. **Which protocol helps in file transfer?**
   A) FTP
   B) HTTP
   C) SMTP
   D) ICMP
   **Answer: A**

8. **DNS is used for:**
   A) Encrypting data
   B) Converting IP to hostname
   C) Mapping domain names to IP
   D) Managing FTP connections
   **Answer: C**

9. **WWW stands for:**
   A) Wide World Web
   B) Web With Wire
   C) World Wide Web
   D) Web World Work
   **Answer: C**

10. **Which layer is responsible for end-to-end delivery?**
    A) Network
    B) Data Link
    C) Application
    D) Transport
    **Answer: D**

11. **TCP provides:**
    A) No guarantee of delivery
    B) Only encryption
    C) Reliable byte stream
    D) Broadcast only
    **Answer: C**

12. **UDP is mainly used in:**
    A) File Transfer
    B) Email
    C) Streaming
    D) Database
    **Answer: C**

13. **What is the primary goal of network security?**
    A) Increase bandwidth
    B) Reduce latency
    C) Protect data
    D) Build cables
    **Answer: C**

14. **Which of the following is used for encryption?**
    A) ICMP
    B) FTP
    C) DNS
    D) AES
    **Answer: D**

15. **Decryption is the process of:**
    A) Encrypting again
    B) Encoding data
    C) Converting ciphertext to plaintext
    D) Sending mail
    **Answer: C**

16. **Which of these is NOT an application layer protocol?**
    A) HTTP
    B) SMTP
    C) DNS
    D) TCP
    **Answer: D**

17. **Which one is NOT a transport layer protocol?**
    A) TCP
    B) UDP
    C) IP
    D) SCTP
    **Answer: C**

18. **Which is a feature of TCP but not of UDP?**
    A) Speed
    B) Reliability
    C) Connectionless
    D) Broadcast
    **Answer: B**

19. **Which protocol uses 3-way handshake?**
    A) UDP
    B) ICMP
    C) TCP
    D) FTP
    **Answer: C**

20. **Application layer works closest to the:**
    A) Hardware
    B) Operating system
    C) User
    D) Transport layer
    **Answer: C**

 

 

 Data Communication and Networking

 Unit I FUNDAMENTALS OF DATA COMMUNICATION

 Data Communication: Definition of Data and Data communication, Components of Data Communication, Data Representation (Text, Image, Numbers, Audio, Video), Data Flow (Simplex, Half Duplex, Full Duplex) 

Network: Network Criteria: Performance (Throughput and Delay), Reliability, Security -Types of Network Connections (Point-to-Point and Multipoint) - Network Topologies: Star, Bus, Ring, Mesh - Network Categories (LAN, MAN, WAN) and Interconnection of networks 

Network Architecture: Layered Approach : ISO-OSI Model & TCP/IP Model – functions of each layer 

Unit II PHYSICAL LAYER

 Multiplexing: Definition of Mulitplexing - Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM),Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM), Synchronous Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) 

Transmission media: Guided Media: Twisted pair – UTP and connectors (RJ-45 Male and Female connectors), STP cables, Coaxial cable and connectors (BNC connector), Fiber-optic cables, cable sizes and connectors (SC, MT-RJ, ST, LC, FC) - Performance, and applications of UTP, Coaxial and Fiber-Optic cables - Unguided Media (Wireless Media): Radio waves, Microwaves, Infrared and their applications 

Switching: Circuit-Switched Network, Packet Switched Network (Datagram approach), Virtual Circuit network 

Unit III DATA LINK LAYER 

Framing of data: Definition, Types: Fixed Size and Variable Size framing– Flow and Error control 

Flow Control: Noiseless Channel: Definition, Stop and Wait protocol – Concepts and Flow Diagram - Noisy Channel: Definition, Stop-and-Wait ARQ protocol, Go-Back–N ARQ Protocol, Selective Repeat ARQ Protocol - Concepts and Flow Diagram only 

Error Control: Concepts of Error Detection and Error Correction – types of error detecting and error correcting codes (definition only)

Unit IV NETWORK LAYER 

Network Devices: Hub, Switch, Router, Bridge, Gateway (definition only) 

Logical addressing: IP Addressing: Dot-Decimal Notation of IPv4 – Classful and Classless addressing – IPv4 datagram format - Basics of IPv6 - Need for transition from IPv4 to IPv6 – IPv6 datagram format - Subnetting (only definition and subnet masks for each IP class) – Static IP and Dynamic IP: Definition and applications 

Network Layer Protocols: IGMP, ICMP, ARP, RARP (definitions and functions only) 

Unit V TRANSPORT LAYER, APPLICATION LAYER AND NETWORK SECURITY 

Transport Layer: Connection-oriented and Connectionless Services - TCP Features - TCP segment format - User datagram format (UDP packet) 

Application Layer: Concepts of DNS – SMTP – FTP - HTTP – WWW (World Wide Web) 

Network Security: Data Encryption and Decryption

 

ECE - Medical Instrumentation MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

 Medical Instrumentation MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

 

Here are **100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)** with **four options each**, divided by the five units from your Medical Instrumentation syllabus. Each unit has **20 MCQs**. Answers are **highlighted in bold** for clarity.

---

## ✅ **Unit I: Human Physiology & Biomedical Instrumentation**

1. What is the typical value of resting membrane potential in neurons?
   A) +30 mV
   **B) –70 mV**
   C) 0 mV
   D) –30 mV

2. Action potentials are generated when:
   A) Potassium exits the cell
   B) Chloride enters the cell
   **C) Sodium enters the cell**
   D) Calcium exits the cell

3. The Central Nervous System includes:
   A) Heart and lungs
   **B) Brain and spinal cord**
   C) Brain and kidneys
   D) Lungs and liver

4. Which organ pumps blood in the cardiovascular system?
   A) Lungs
   **B) Heart**
   C) Liver
   D) Brain

5. Main function of respiratory system is:
   A) Circulation
   **B) Gas exchange**
   C) Digestion
   D) Filtration

6. Urinary system removes:
   A) Oxygen
   B) CO₂
   **C) Waste products**
   D) Hormones

7. Surface electrodes are used for:
   **A) Non-invasive recording**
   B) Intracellular recording
   C) Deep muscle stimulation
   D) None of the above

8. Microelectrodes are primarily used for:
   A) ECG
   **B) Intracellular recordings**
   C) EMG
   D) Pulse oximetry

9. Needle electrodes are:
   A) Placed on skin
   B) Used only in ECG
   **C) Inserted into tissue**
   D) External only

10. A transducer converts:
    **A) One form of energy into another**
    B) Heat into light
    C) Light into pressure
    D) Sound into liquid

11. A sensor detects:
    A) Digital signals only
    B) Noise
    **C) Physical or chemical changes**
    D) Current

12. Signal conditioning includes:
    A) Encoding
    B) Compression
    **C) Amplification and filtering**
    D) Imaging

13. The purpose of amplification in biopotential signals is to:
    **A) Increase signal strength**
    B) Reduce noise
    C) Filter unwanted signals
    D) Compress data

14. Electrodes used for ECG are:
    A) Needle electrodes
    **B) Surface electrodes**
    C) Microelectrodes
    D) Invasive electrodes

15. The primary role of the kidney is:
    A) Oxygen transport
    B) Digestion
    **C) Waste filtration**
    D) Hormone regulation

16. Biopotential refers to:
    A) Magnetic field
    **B) Electrical potential in living tissue**
    C) Pressure wave
    D) Fluid movement

17. Action potentials propagate due to:
    **A) Ionic exchange across membranes**
    B) Heat transmission
    C) Pressure gradients
    D) Optical sensors

18. The CNS controls:
    A) Urination only
    **B) All voluntary and involuntary activities**
    C) Lung function only
    D) None

19. Biomedical amplifiers must have:
    A) High output impedance
    **B) High input impedance**
    C) High gain-to-noise
    D) Low input resistance

20. Which component boosts weak physiological signals?
    A) Transducer
    B) Sensor
    **C) Amplifier**
    D) Battery

---

## ✅ **Unit II: Diagnostic & Monitoring Instruments**

21. ECG is used to monitor:
    A) Brain activity
    **B) Heart activity**
    C) Blood sugar
    D) Body temperature

22. P wave in ECG represents:
    **A) Atrial depolarization**
    B) Ventricular depolarization
    C) Atrial repolarization
    D) Ventricular repolarization

23. EEG measures electrical activity of the:
    A) Heart
    **B) Brain**
    C) Muscles
    D) Lungs

24. EMG records:
    A) Blood pressure
    **B) Muscle activity**
    C) Brain waves
    D) Skin temperature

25. Pulse oximeter measures:
    A) Pulse rate only
    B) BP
    **C) Oxygen saturation**
    D) Blood sugar

26. Normal SpO₂ value is:
    A) 70–80%
    **B) 95–100%**
    C) 85–90%
    D) 60–75%

27. EEG is useful for detecting:
    A) Heart attacks
    **B) Epilepsy**
    C) Lung function
    D) Kidney disorders

28. EMG electrodes are often:
    A) Skin electrodes
    B) Microelectrodes
    **C) Needle electrodes**
    D) None

29. Sphygmomanometer is used to measure:
    A) Heart rate
    **B) Blood pressure**
    C) Respiration rate
    D) Sugar levels

30. Korotkoff sounds are heard using:
    A) ECG
    B) EEG
    **C) Stethoscope**
    D) Thermometer

31. ERG tests the function of the:
    **A) Retina**
    B) Ear
    C) Heart
    D) Kidney

32. Audiometry is related to:
    **A) Hearing assessment**
    B) Vision
    C) Smell
    D) Blood pressure

33. EMG is helpful in diagnosing:
    A) Stroke
    **B) Neuromuscular disorders**
    C) Diabetes
    D) Cardiac failure

34. ECG is recorded using:
    **A) Surface electrodes**
    B) Laser probes
    C) Thermistors
    D) X-ray plates

35. Normal heart rate in adults is:
    A) 40–50 bpm
    **B) 60–100 bpm**
    C) 100–140 bpm
    D) 20–40 bpm

36. SpO₂ is monitored in:
    A) Brain surgery
    B) X-ray
    **C) Respiratory therapy**
    D) Audiometry

37. EEG signal frequency range:
    A) 100–500 Hz
    B) 1–2 Hz
    **C) 0.5–100 Hz**
    D) >500 Hz

38. The unit of blood pressure is:
    A) mmHg
    **B) mmHg**
    C) BPM
    D) Liters/min

39. Pulse oximeter works using:
    A) Thermocouple
    B) X-ray
    **C) Light absorption principle**
    D) Sound

40. Audiometry uses:
    **A) Headphones**
    B) ECG leads
    C) Needles
    D) Probes

Here are the remaining **60 MCQs** from **Unit III to Unit V** of your **Medical Instrumentation syllabus**, completing the full **100-question set**.

---

## ✅ **Unit III: Therapeutic Instruments**

41. Pacemakers are used to treat:
    A) Hypertension
    **B) Irregular heartbeats (arrhythmia)**
    C) Lung infection
    D) Brain seizures

42. ICD stands for:
    A) Implantable Control Device
    **B) Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillator**
    C) Internal Cardio Device
    D) Integrated Cardiac Defibrillator

43. ICD delivers:
    A) Oxygen
    **B) Electrical shock to restore normal rhythm**
    C) Medications
    D) Blood transfusion

44. Dialysis is a process that:
    A) Injects nutrients
    B) Removes oxygen
    **C) Removes waste from blood**
    D) Adds red blood cells

45. In haemodialysis, blood is filtered through:
    A) Kidney
    B) Liver
    **C) Dialyzer (artificial kidney)**
    D) Peritoneum

46. Peritoneal dialysis uses:
    A) External machine only
    **B) Peritoneal membrane for filtration**
    C) Heart-lung machine
    D) Lungs

47. Ventilator is used for:
    **A) Mechanical breathing support**
    B) Cardiac pacing
    C) Brain stimulation
    D) Blood circulation

48. CPB stands for:
    A) Cardio Pulse Booster
    **B) Cardiopulmonary Bypass**
    C) Cardiac Performance Booster
    D) Critical Pressure Backup

49. A pacemaker typically includes:
    A) Kidney
    **B) Pulse generator and leads**
    C) Oxygen supply
    D) Dialysis tube

50. Pacemaker pacing modes are:
    A) Manual only
    **B) Fixed rate or demand mode**
    C) Non-pulsed
    D) Direct electric current

51. Ventilator settings include:
    A) ECG and EEG
    **B) Tidal volume and respiratory rate**
    C) Heart rate only
    D) Blood glucose level

52. Heart-lung machine is used during:
    A) EEG
    **B) Open-heart surgery**
    C) Brain scan
    D) Liver transplant

53. Dialysis removes:
    A) Hormones
    **B) Urea and toxins**
    C) Glucose
    D) DNA

54. A patient needing ventilation may have:
    A) High blood pressure
    **B) Respiratory failure**
    C) Kidney stones
    D) Broken bone

55. Peritoneal dialysis access point is:
    A) Arm
    B) Neck
    **C) Abdomen**
    D) Chest

56. Ventilator delivers:
    **A) Controlled airflow into lungs**
    B) Insulin
    C) Electric shocks
    D) X-rays

57. CPB machine oxygenates:
    **A) Blood**
    B) Heart
    C) Brain
    D) Muscles

58. Pacemaker triggers heart contraction via:
    A) Air pressure
    **B) Electrical impulses**
    C) Chemical reaction
    D) Heat

59. Haemodialysis is typically performed:
    A) Every day
    **B) 2–3 times a week**
    C) Once a year
    D) Twice a month

60. A key risk in ICD use is:
    A) Under-voltage
    **B) Inappropriate shock delivery**
    C) Sound distortion
    D) Temperature rise

---

## ✅ **Unit IV: Modern Imaging Techniques**

61. Ultrasound imaging uses:
    A) X-rays
    B) Infrared
    **C) High-frequency sound waves**
    D) Lasers

62. Axial Echo Cardiography is used for:
    A) Brain imaging
    **B) Heart structure analysis**
    C) Lungs
    D) Liver

63. X-rays are a form of:
    A) Sound energy
    **B) Electromagnetic radiation**
    C) Mechanical waves
    D) Thermal energy

64. CT stands for:
    A) Computer Tracking
    **B) Computed Tomography**
    C) Central Thermography
    D) Circuit Test

65. CT scans give:
    A) 2D surface view
    B) Only heart imaging
    **C) Cross-sectional images**
    D) Blood reports

66. PET scan involves:
    A) X-ray emission
    **B) Radioactive tracers**
    C) Mechanical rotation
    D) Pressure measurement

67. PET is useful in detecting:
    A) Kidney infections
    **B) Tumors and metabolic activity**
    C) Hearing loss
    D) Heart murmurs

68. MRI uses:
    **A) Magnetic fields and radio waves**
    B) Gamma rays
    C) Sound waves
    D) Electric current

69. In MRI, images are formed using:
    A) Glucose levels
    **B) Proton alignment and relaxation**
    C) Blood samples
    D) Light

70. Infrared imaging is useful for:
    A) Bone fracture
    B) Blood count
    **C) Detecting heat or inflammation**
    D) Urine output

71. Laser Endoscopy uses:
    **A) Laser light for internal viewing**
    B) X-rays
    C) Magnetic fields
    D) Ultrasound

72. CT scans expose the patient to:
    A) No radiation
    **B) Ionizing radiation**
    C) Magnetic fields
    D) Sound

73. MRI is preferred for:
    A) Bone injury
    **B) Soft tissue imaging**
    C) Lung capacity
    D) Skin infection

74. Ultrasound is considered:
    A) Dangerous
    B) Ionizing
    **C) Safe and non-ionizing**
    D) Optical

75. PET requires injection of:
    A) Saline
    B) Blood
    **C) Radioactive glucose**
    D) Air

76. MRI is NOT suitable for patients with:
    **A) Metal implants**
    B) Kidney issues
    C) Diabetes
    D) Allergies

77. Ultrasound uses what kind of probe?
    A) Laser
    B) Radiowave
    **C) Transducer**
    D) CT head

78. In X-ray imaging, bones appear:
    **A) White**
    B) Black
    C) Red
    D) Transparent

79. CT scan is better than X-ray because:
    A) It's faster
    **B) It provides 3D view**
    C) It's cheaper
    D) It's portable

80. MRI avoids radiation by using:
    A) CT scanner
    B) Laser scanner
    **C) Strong magnets and radio waves**
    D) X-ray tubes

---

## ✅ **Unit V: Biotelemetry & Patient Safety**

81. Biotelemetry is used for:
    A) Audio signals
    **B) Remote physiological monitoring**
    C) MRI
    D) ECG printing

82. A typical telemetry system includes:
    **A) Sensor, transmitter, receiver**
    B) Scanner
    C) Switch
    D) Display only

83. Single-channel telemetry sends:
    **A) One signal at a time**
    B) Dual power
    C) Multiple data streams
    D) Compressed video

84. Multi-channel telemetry allows:
    A) One sensor only
    **B) Multiple physiological data**
    C) Imaging
    D) None

85. Chronic disease management includes:
    **A) Remote patient monitoring**
    B) Heart transplant
    C) Organ removal
    D) Infection

86. Post-discharge monitoring involves:
    A) Surgery
    **B) Home-based sensors**
    C) Diet only
    D) Physical exam

87. Microshock affects:
    A) Bones
    **B) Heart via internal leads**
    C) Muscles
    D) Skin

88. Macroshock involves:
    A) Small localized shock
    **B) Large current through body**
    C) Audio signals
    D) Air shock

89. Grounding in medical devices prevents:
    A) Data loss
    **B) Electrical shock**
    C) Imaging errors
    D) Heating

90. Electrosurgical units pose risks of:
    A) Vision loss
    B) Blood clots
    **C) Burns and high-frequency shocks**
    D) Hair loss

91. Telemedicine allows:
    **A) Remote diagnosis and treatment**
    B) Surgery
    C) Bed-side only care
    D) Manual charting

92. Physiological parameters suitable for telemetry:
    A) Age
    **B) ECG, SpO₂, BP**
    C) Weight
    D) Blood group

93. Patient safety is improved with:
    A) High current
    **B) Isolation and grounding**


C) No insulation
D) Complex wiring

94. Chronic disease monitoring uses:
    A) Blood samples only
    **B) Wearable sensors**
    C) Monthly checkup
    D) None

95. Biotelemetry is important in:
    **A) ICU and mobile health**
    B) Sports only
    C) School exams
    D) Banks

96. Electrosurgical burns are due to:
    A) Chemicals
    **B) Poor contact or current leakage**
    C) UV exposure
    D) ECG pads

97. Isolation transformer is used for:
    A) Data transfer
    **B) Preventing shock hazards**
    C) Voltage boost
    D) Audio clarity

98. Ground fault circuit interrupters (GFCI) are used for:
    A) Imaging
    B) Transmitting data
    **C) Detecting leakage current**
    D) Cleaning instruments

99. In telemetry, RF transmitter sends signal to:
    A) Amplifier
    **B) Receiver**
    C) Transducer
    D) Probe

100. Macroshock becomes dangerous above:
     A) 0.1 mA
     B) 1 mA
     **C) 100 mA**
     D) 0.01 mA

 

 

Unit I Introduction to Human Physiology & Biomedical Instrumentation 

Bio–potential and their generation(resting and action potential)- Block Diagram of Central Nervous System (CNS)- Block Diagram of the cardiovascular system - Block Diagram of the respiratory system - Block Diagram of the urinary system. Electrodes:Micro, Skin-Surface and Needle electrodes- Biomedical sensors and transducers – Biomedical signal conditioning and amplification. 

Unit II Diagnostic & Monitoring Instruments 

Cardiac Monitoring: Electrocardiography (ECG) –Brain Monitoring: Electroencephalography (EEG) –Muscle Activity Monitoring: - Electromyography (EMG) –SpO2 Monitoring:Pulseoximeter- Blood Pressure monitoring: Sphygmomanometer - Basic concepts ofElectroretinography (ERG), Audiometry 

 Unit III Therapeutic Instruments 

Introduction to Electrotherapy devices – Implantable Cardioverter Devices: Pacemakers – Implantable Cardiac Defibrillators (ICD) - Therapy Devices: Dialysis machines (Haemodialysis and Peritoneal Dialysis) - Respiratory Therapy Devices: Ventilators - Heart Lung Machine (Cardio Pulmonary Bypass Machine) 

 Unit IV Modern Imaging Techniques 

Ultrasonic Imaging Techniques: Axial Echo Cardiography, applications – Xray Imaging: X-ray Machine, applications, Computerized Tomography (CT) - Positron Emission Tomography (PET) - Infrared imaging and its applications - Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) technique and its applications - Laser Endoscopy imaging technique and its applications. 

 Unit V Biotelemetry and Patient Safety 

Biotelemetry: Physiological parameters adaptable to biotelemetry – Block diagram of atypical Biotelemetry System - Single Channel Telemetry technique - Multi Channel Telemetry technique - Continuous Monitoring -Chronic Disease Management-Post-discharge - Telemedicine: Definition and applications 

Patient safety: Physiological effects of electric current – Micro and Macro shock – shock hazards from electrical - Methods of Accident Prevention: Grounding - Safety aspects in electrosurgical units: Burns, High-frequency current hazards. 

ECE MOBILE COMMUNICATION MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS - MC MCQ QUESTIONS

 Mobile Communication MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

 

## 🟢 Unit I – Mobile Radio Propagation (20 MCQs)

1. Scattering refers to:
   A) Reflection off smooth surface
   B) Redirection by rough objects
   C) Bending around edges
   D) Absorption by atmosphere
   **Answer: B**

2. Reflection, diffraction and scattering are mechanisms of:
   A) Small-scale fading
   B) Propagation
   C) Channel coding
   D) Modulation
   **Answer: B**

3. Free-space path loss increases with:
   A) Distance squared
   B) Inverse distance
   C) Constant
   D) Frequency decrease
   **Answer: A**

4. The two‑ray model accounts for:
   A) Direct and reflected rays
   B) Scattering only
   C) Diffraction only
   D) Antenna imperfections
   **Answer: A**

5. Small-scale fading results from:
   A) Distance change only
   B) Multipath interference
   C) Fixed attenuation
   D) Static obstacles
   **Answer: B**

6. Large‑scale path loss describes:
   A) Fading in milliseconds
   B) Slow average power drop with distance
   C) Random amplitude fluctuation
   D) Terrain-dependent diffraction only
   **Answer: B**

7. The two‑ray model predicts signal nulls when:
   A) Antenna height changes
   B) Path difference = multiple of wavelength/2
   C) Perfect reflection occurs
   D) Using omnidirectional antennas
   **Answer: B**

8. Diffraction occurs when waves:
   A) Reflect off surfaces
   B) Bend around obstacles
   C) Scatter randomly
   D) Travel in free space
   **Answer: B**

9. In two-ray, if antenna heights double, interference pattern:
   A) Remains same
   B) Spacing increases
   C) Spacing decreases
   D) Disappears
   **Answer: C**

10. Small-scale fading includes:
    A) Large obstacles only
    B) Ground reflections only
    C) Delay spreads and multipath
    D) Hexagonal cells
    **Answer: C**

11. Reflection causes:
    A) Phase shift and amplitude change
    B) Frequency shift only
    C) No phase effect
    D) Only scattering
    **Answer: A**

12. Free space path loss ∝ (4πd/λ)²; more loss at:
    A) Lower frequency
    B) Shorter distances
    C) Higher frequency
    D) Larger wavelength
    **Answer: C**

13. Two-ray model is used above:
    A) Sea and flat terrain
    B) Urban clutter
    C) Dense forest
    D) Only indoors
    **Answer: A**

14. Small-scale fading timescale:
    A) Seconds
    B) Minutes
    C) Milliseconds
    D) Hours
    **Answer: C**

15. Shadow fading involves:
    A) Signal roll-off due to unwanted motion
    B) Slow variations from terrain
    C) Fast fading peaks
    D) No amplitude change
    **Answer: B**

16. Multipath spread causes:
    A) Frequency reuse
    B) Time dispersion and ISI
    C) Antenna misalignment
    D) Skyline limitation
    **Answer: B**

17. In two‑ray, as distance increases, path difference:
    A) Constant
    B) Increases causing periodic fading
    C) Decreases
    D) Zero beyond horizon
    **Answer: B**

18. Scattering dominates at:
    A) Low frequencies
    B) High frequencies and small obstacles
    C) Open terrain only
    D) Uniform media
    **Answer: B**

19. Small‑scale fading can be mitigated by:
    A) Larger cells
    B) Diversity or equalization
    C) Higher TX power only
    D) Slower user speed
    **Answer: B**

20. Two-ray model is valid if TX and RX height >:
    A) Several λ
    B) Zero
    C) MHz
    D) Antenna gain
    **Answer: A**

---

## 🟢 Unit II – Cellular Concepts & Handoff Strategies (20 MCQs)

21. Frequency reuse allows:
    A) Antennas reuse only
    B) Same frequency reused in distant cells to boost capacity
    C) No reuse
    D) Single channel per cell
    **Answer: B** 

22. Co-channel cells use:
    A) Distinct frequencies
    B) Same frequencies adequately spaced
    C) Single frequency in cluster
    D) Identical codes
    **Answer: B**
23. The reuse distance formula D = R·√(3N) where N is cluster size: correct?
    A) Yes
    B) No
    **Answer: A**

24. Fixed channel assignment means:
    A) Channels flexibly allocated
    B) Permanent static assignment
    C) Borrowing from others
    D) Shared code channels
    **Answer: B**

25. Dynamic channel assignment involves:
    A) Static allocation
    B) Borrowing and assigning per call
    C) No reuse
    D) Fixed cluster size
    **Answer: B**

26. Handoff occurs when mobile:
    A) Moves within same cell
    B) Moves into another cell during call
    C) Idle state
    D) Calls end
    **Answer: B**
27. Guard channel strategy reserves channels for:
    A) New calls
    B) Handoff calls
    C) Interference damping
    D) Data only
    **Answer: B**

28. Queuing handoff reduces:
    A) Blocking new calls
    B) Dropped handoff calls
    C) Channel reuse
    D) Transmission power
    **Answer: B**

29. Soft handoff is:
    A) Break before make
    B) Make before break (connection overlaps)
    C) Hard
    D) Disruptive
    **Answer: B**

30. MAHO stands for:
    A) Mobile-assisted handoff
    B) Macro antenna hopping
    C) Manual assisted handoff
    D) Mixed access handover
    **Answer: A**

31. Dwell time is:
    A) Time within cell before handoff trigger
    B) Call duration
    C) Paging delay
    D) Frequency switch time
    **Answer: A**

32. In cellular concept, a cluster is:
    A) Frequency group
    B) Set of cells using full frequency set once
    C) Subscriber group
    D) Antenna set
    **Answer: B**
33. Main cellular aim is:
    A) Larger cells
    B) Frequency reuse
    C) Satellite link
    D) Single transmitter
    **Answer: B**

34. Co-channel interference reduction factor q = D/R: for N=7, D/R ≈:
    A) 3.46
    B) 4.6
    C) 7.6
    D) 6
    **Answer: B**

35. Hard handoff releases old connection before new:
    A) True
    B) False
    **Answer: A**

36. Inter–MSC handoff means:
    A) Same MSC
    B) Between MSCs/different area
    C) Intra-cell only
    D) Within BSC
    **Answer: B**

37. Power-difference handoff relies on:
    A) Signal strength threshold
    B) Only mobile speed
    C) Static threshold
    D) Neighbor assistance
    **Answer: A**

38. Primary handoff goal:
    A) Reduce channels
    B) Minimize dropped calls
    C) Maximize interference
    D) Increase power
    **Answer: B**
39. Channel assignment strategies include:
    A) Only fixed
    B) Only dynamic
    C) Fixed and dynamic
    D) None
    **Answer: C**

40. A neighbor list is used for:
    A) Sector planning
    B) Handoff candidate selection
    C) Frequency reuse
    D) Power control
    **Answer: B**

---

## 🟢 Unit III – System Capacity & Improvement Techniques (20 MCQs)

41. Co-channel interference arises from:
    A) Adjacent channel only
    B) Cells using same frequency
    C) Thermal noise
    D) No reuse
    **Answer: B** ([Wikipedia][4], [mcq.electronics-club.com][8])

42. Adjacent channel interference is from:
    A) Same channel reuse
    B) Neighboring frequency overlap
    C) Reflection only
    D) No interference
    **Answer: B**

43. Capacity improves by:
    A) Bigger cells
    B) Cell splitting
    C) Removing sectors
    D) Slower handoff
    **Answer: B**

44. Cell sectoring divides:
    A) Frequency evenly
    B) A cell into directional sectors reducing interference
    C) Channels temporally
    D) Only spectrum
    **Answer: B**

45. Repeaters are used for:
    A) Reducing co‑channel interference
    B) Range extension in weak coverage
    C) Cell splitting
    D) Frequency planning
    **Answer: B**

46. Microcell zone concept uses:
    A) Whole cell as a zone
    B) Smaller zones within cell for trunking
    C) Macro only
    D) TDD only
    **Answer: B**

47. Sectoring reduces:
    A) Internal capacity
    B) Interference and improves C/I
    C) Frequency reuse
    D) Power control
    **Answer: B**

48. Cell splitting increases:
    A) Cell radius
    B) Number of cells in area
    C) Carrier frequency
    D) Interference
    **Answer: B**

49. Microcells are used where:
    A) Rural low density
    B) Urban hotspots to boost capacity
    C) Satellite coverage
    D) EM interference zones
    **Answer: B**

50. Splitting vs sectoring: splitting reduces cell size, sectoring reduces:
    A) Time
    B) Angle of coverage
    C) Frequency bandwidth
    D) Power
    **Answer: B**

51. Capacity ∝:
    A) Cluster size
    B) Number of clusters replicated
    C) Cell radius only
    D) Channel width only
    **Answer: B**

52. Interference can be mitigated by:
    A) Increasing cell size
    B) Frequency planning and sectoring
    C) No reuse
    D) Static assignment only
    **Answer: B**

53. Cell splitting may lead to:
    A) Lower capacity
    B) Increased frequency reuse and capacity
    C) Higher interference
    D) Fewer channels
    **Answer: B**

54. Using repeaters avoids:
    A) Installing new base stations
    B) Capacity increase
    C) Sectoring
    D) Frequency reuse
    **Answer: A**

55. Microcell zone concept improves:
    A) Spectral efficiency through better trunking
    B) Only coverage
    C) Only cell splitting
    D) Satellite link
    **Answer: A**

56. Sectoring commonly uses:
    A) Omni antennas
    B) 3 or 6 directional sectors
    C) No antenna
    D) Isotropic patterns
    **Answer: B**

57. Co-channel interference reduction achieved by:
    A) Increasing power
    B) Frequency planning and sectoring
    C) Removing reuse
    D) None
    **Answer: B**

58. Range extension via repeater is useful in:
    A) Inner city core only
    B) Shadow or fringe areas
    C) Core network
    D) Satellite base
    **Answer: B**

59. Capacity improvement uses cell splitting, sectoring, and:
    A) Larger cells
    B) Microcell zoning
    C) Longer channels
    D) Reflectors only
    **Answer: B**

60. Adjacent channel interference is minimized by:
    A) No filtering
    B) Filtering and guard bands
    C) More power
    D) Larger frequency reuse
    **Answer: B**

---

## 🟢 Unit IV – Multipath Mitigation Techniques (20 MCQs)

61. Equalization combats:
    A) Co-channel interference
    B) ISI from multipath
    C) Shadow fading
    D) Larger cells
    **Answer: B**

62. Adaptive equalizer adjusts:
    A) Channel codes
    B) Filter coefficients over time
    C) Frequency reuse
    D) Sector angle
    **Answer: B**

63. Zero-forcing equalization aims to:
    A) Neutralize intersymbol interference completely
    B) Adjust power only
    C) Sector cells
    D) Increase noise
    **Answer: A**

64. LMS equalizer uses:
    A) Maximum likelihood
    B) Gradient descent to minimize error
    C) Static tap settings
    D) High complexity only
    **Answer: B**

65. Diversity combats fading by:
    A) Single antenna
    B) Multiple uncorrelated channels combined
    C) Cell splitting
    D) Frequency reuse
    **Answer: B**

66. Micro diversity uses:
    A) Separate sites
    B) Closely spaced antennas
    C) Time slots only
    D) One antenna
    **Answer: B**

67. Macro diversity uses:
    A) Same cell antennas
    B) Spatially separated base stations
    C) Equalizer taps
    D) Single antenna
    **Answer: B**

68. Transmitter diversity means:
    A) Multiple antennas at transmitter
    B) Only at receiver
    C) Larger cells only
    D) Sectorization
    **Answer: A**

69. Receiver diversity combines signals from:
    A) One antenna
    B) Multiple receive antennas
    C) Multiple frequencies
    D) Multiple base stations
    **Answer: B**

70. Equalizer tap count depends on:
    A) Doppler only
    B) Delay spread length
    C) Antenna height
    D) Cell radius
    **Answer: B**

71. LMS algorithm advantage:
    A) No training sequence
    B) Low complexity, adaptive
    C) Zero noise
    D) Infinite taps only
    **Answer: B**

72. Zero forcing drawback:
    A) No ISI removal
    B) Noise amplification
    C) Slow convergence
    D) Sectoring only
    **Answer: B**

73. Diversity gain improves:
    A) Spectral efficiency
    B) Link reliability
    C) Handoff frequency
    D) None
    **Answer: B**

74. Equalizer is placed:
    A) At transmitter only
    B) At receiver to correct ISI
    C) Inbetween cells
    D) None
    **Answer: B**

75. Combining techniques include:
    A) Maximal ratio combining
    B) Zero forcing only
    C) Sectoring
    D) Splitting
    **Answer: A**

76. Diversity types include:
    A) Frequency, time, space
    B) Color, shape
    C) Sectoring only
    D) Splitting only
    **Answer: A**

77. Adaptive equalizer needs:
    A) Constant channel
    B) Training/pilot sequence
    C) More cells
    D) Sectorization
    **Answer: B**

78. Macro diversity especially helps in:
    A) Indoor fading only
    B) Base-station diversity for coverage
    C) Equalization only
    D) Channel reuse
    **Answer: B**

79. Transmit diversity coding includes:
    A) Spatial multiplexing only
    B) Space–time coding
    C) Sectorization
    D) Reuse
    **Answer: B**

80. LMS stands for:
    A) Least Mean Squares
    B) Linear Mean System
    C) Layered Modulation Scheme
    D) Low-power Multiplexing
    **Answer: A**

---

## 🟢 Unit V – Multiple Antenna Techniques (20 MCQs)

81. MIMO stands for:
    A) Multiple-input multiple-output
    B) Mono input mono output
    C) Master inter machine output
    D) Multiple interface mod output
    **Answer: A**

82. Spatial multiplexing uses:
    A) Time division only
    B) Multiple streams in parallel via multiple antennas
    C) Larger cells
    D) Frequency reuse only
    **Answer: B**

83. Precoding requires:
    A) No knowledge of channel
    B) Channel state information (CSI) at transmitter
    C) Larger cell size
    D) Frequency reuse
    **Answer: B**

84. Beamforming focuses energy:
    A) Uniformly
    B) In desired spatial direction
    C) In code domain
    D) In frequency domain
    **Answer: B**

85. MIMO capacity grows with:
    A) Transmission power only
    B) Number of antennas and rich multipath
    C) Sectoring
    D) Larger cells
    **Answer: B**

86. Without CSI, diversity coding uses:
    A) Beamforming
    B) Space-time coding
    C) No diversity
    D) Splitting only
    **Answer: B**

87. Multi-user MIMO allows:
    A) Single user only
    B) Serving multiple users simultaneously spatially
    C) Only beamforming
    D) No CSI
    **Answer: B**

88. Capacity in non-fading channel is:
    A) Same as fading
    B) Lower
    C) Higher since no variability
    D) Zero
    **Answer: C**

89. Beamforming improves:
    A) Interference suppression and SNR
    B) Calls dropping rate
    C) Cell radius only
    D) Frequency reuse pattern
    **Answer: A**

90. Pre‑coding transforms data before transmission using:
    A) Random coding
    B) CSI to improve performance
    C) Sectoring only
    D) Reuse only
    **Answer: B**

91. Channel State Information helps determine:
    A) Cell size
    B) Optimal antenna weights
    C) Handoff thresholds
    D) Frequency reuse distance
    **Answer: B**
92. Rich multipath is beneficial for MIMO because:
    A) It degrades signal
    B) Provides distinct spatial signatures
    C) Causes scattering only
    D) Limits capacity
    **Answer: B**

93. Spatial multiplexing is limited by:
    A) Number of antennas on smaller side (tx or rx)
    B) Cell radius
    C) Sectoring angle
    D) Base station power
    **Answer: A**

94. MIMO‑OFDM uses:
    A) Only OFDM
    B) Spatial multiplexing + OFDM for high spectral efficiency
    C) Sectoring only
    D) Single stream only
    **Answer: B**

95. Spatial multiplexing without CSI at transmitter:
    A) Requires precoding
    B) Works with stream separation at receiver
    C) Impossible
    D) Degrades to SISO
    **Answer: B**

96. Diversity coding is used when:
    A) CSI unknown at transmitter
    B) CSI known fully
    C) Only one antenna
    D) Macro cells only
    **Answer: A**

97. Capacity in fading vs non-fading: fading can reduce average but MIMO helps restore via:
    A) Sectoring only
    B) Spatial multiplexing and diversity
    C) Splitting only
    D) Repeaters
    **Answer: B**

98. Precoding helps:
    A) Enhance beamforming and spatial multiplex gains
    B) Interference only
    C) Cell splitting only
    D) Sectoring
    **Answer: A**

99. Beamforming may reduce:
    A) Multipath
    B) Inter-cell interference
    C) Frequency reuse
    D) Handoff frequency
    **Answer: B**

100. MIMO capacity theoretically grows without bound as antennas grow under ideal conditions:
     A) True
     B) False
     **Answer: A** ---

Unit I MOBILE RADIO PROPAGATION 

1.1: PROPAGATION MECHANISMS - Introduction to radio wave propagation (scattering, reflection, diffraction), Large scale path loss, small scale fading 1.2: PROPAGATION MODELS - Free space propagation model-Two ray model  

Unit II CELLULAR CONCEPTS AND HANDOFF STRATEGIES 

2.1: CELLULAR CONCEPTS- Introduction –frquency reuse, channel assignment strategies 2.2: HANDOFF STRATEGIES- Prioritizing Handoffs-Practical Handoff Considerations

Unit III SYSTEM CAPACITY AND CAPACITY IMPROVEMENT TECHNIQUES 

3.1: INTERFERENCE AND SYSTEM CAPACITY- Co-channel interference - Adjacent Channel Interference-Interference- System Capacity 3.2: IMPROVING COVERAGE AND CAPACITY- Cell splitting and Cell sectoring - Repeaters for Range Extension – Micro cell Zone Concept

Unit IV MULTIPATH MITIGATION TECHNIQUES

 4.1:EQUALIZATION - Equalization – Adaptive equalization-Zero forcing and LMS algorithms 4.2:DIVERSITY - Diversity – Micro and Macro diversity – transmitter diversity, receiver diversity 

Unit V MULTIPLE ANTENNA TECHNIQUES 

5.1: MIMO SYSTEMS - MIMO systems – spatial multiplexing-System model-Pre-coding – Beam forming 5.2: MIMO CAPACITY - Channel state information-capacity in fading and non-fading channels

 

ECE - Advanced Communication Systems mcq questions , ACS MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

 

 Advanced Communication Systems mcq questions , ACS MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

 

## 🟢 Unit I: Digital Modulation Techniques

### ASK, FSK, PSK, QPSK (modulation/demodulation diagrams, operation, waveforms) + Basic OFDM

1. ASK stands for:
   A) Amplitude Shift Keying
   B) Angle Shift Keying
   C) Amplitude Side Keying
   D) Angle Side Keying
   **Answer: A**
2. In ASK, binary '1' is represented by:
   A) High amplitude carrier
   B) Low amplitude carrier
   C) Frequency shift
   D) Phase shift
   **Answer: A**
3. ASK is also known as:
   A) On‑Off Keying (OOK)
   B) Phase Modulation
   C) Frequency Modulation
   D) Quadrature Modulation
   **Answer: A**
4. FSK varies which parameter of the carrier:
   A) Amplitude
   B) Phase
   C) Frequency
   D) Power
   **Answer: C** 

5. In BFSK, '1' and '0' are represented by:
   A) Same frequency
   B) Two distinct frequencies
   C) Two amplitudes
   D) Phase shift
   **Answer: B**

6. Binary FSK demodulation can be:
   A) Coherent only
   B) Non‑coherent only
   C) Both coherent and non‑coherent
   D) Neither
   **Answer: C** 

7. PSK modulates which property of the carrier:
   A) Amplitude
   B) Frequency
   C) Phase
   D) Time
   **Answer: C**
8. BPSK uses:
   A) Four phase states
   B) Two phase states (0°, 180°)
   C) Two frequencies
   D) Two amplitudes
   **Answer: B**
9. QPSK transmits:
   A) 1 bit per symbol
   B) 2 bits per symbol
   C) 4 bits per symbol
   D) 0 bits per symbol
   **Answer: B**
10. QPSK uses which phase angles:
    A) 0°, 180°
    B) 0°, 90°, 180°, 270°
    C) Any continuous angle
    D) No phase shift
    **Answer: B**
11. BPSK and QPSK have:
    A) Different BER
    B) Same BER under equal SNR
    C) QPSK always better BER
    D) BPSK always better BER
    **Answer: B** 

12. OFDM stands for:
    A) Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
    B) Ordered Frequency Direct Modulation
    C) Orthogonal Frequency Direct Multiplexing
    D) Off Frequency Division Multiplexing
    **Answer: A**

13. OFDM divides data into parallel streams and transmits on:
    A) One carrier
    B) Orthogonal subcarriers
    C) Random frequency
    D) Phase‑shifted carriers
    **Answer: B**
14. The main advantage of OFDM is:
    A) Simple hardware
    B) Robustness against multipath and ISI
    C) Low peak-to-average power ratio
    D) Single carrier efficiency
    **Answer: B**
15. OFDM is used in:
    A) AM radio
    B) 4G/LTE, Wi‑Fi, DVB
    C) FM broadcast only
    D) Traditional analog systems
    **Answer: B**

16. FSK is more immune to noise than ASK because:
    A) Amplitude variations do not affect frequency detection
    B) ASK uses frequency changes
    C) FSK has variable amplitude
    D) FSK uses phase changes only
    **Answer: A** ([digimodstu.vercel.app][10], [Wikipedia][17], [Sanfoundry][9], [Sanfoundry][5])

17. Continuous-phase FSK avoids:
    A) Bandpass filters
    B) Abrupt phase changes
    C) Demodulation
    D) Frequency shifts
    **Answer: B**
18. A coherent detector detects:
    A) Amplitude only
    B) Phase with reference
    C) Frequency only
    D) No reference
    **Answer: B** 19. Which technique uses both amplitude and phase modulation:
    A) ASK
    B) FSK
    C) PSK
    D) QAM
    **Answer: D**
20. OFDM uses which transform at receiver:
    A) Fourier series
    B) FFT
    C) IFFT
    D) Laplace transform
    **Answer: B**
---

## 🟢 Unit II: Satellite Communication

Kepler’s laws, orbits, geostationary, Apogee/Perigee, active/passive satellites, mobile services, DTH, GPS, NavIC, TDMA/FDMA/CDMA

21. Kepler’s First Law states that orbits are:
    A) Circular
    B) Elliptical with Sun at one focus
    C) Parabolic
    D) Hyperbolic
    **Answer: B**

22. Geostationary orbit means satellite appears:
    A) Moving west-east
    B) Stationary over equator
    C) In polar orbit
    D) Changing position
    **Answer: B**

23. Apogee is:
    A) Closest point to Earth
    B) Farthest point in elliptical orbit
    C) Mid‑point
    D) Orbital speed reference
    **Answer: B**

24. Passive satellite:
    A) Amplifies and retransmits
    B) Just reflects signals
    C) Generates signals
    D) Mobile terminal
    **Answer: B**

25. Active satellite has:
    A) No transponder
    B) Transponder amplifying signals
    C) Passive reflector only
    D) User terminal
    **Answer: B**

26. DTH stands for:
    A) Direct To Home
    B) Digital Television Hub
    C) Digital Transmission House
    D) Direct Television Hub
    **Answer: A**

27. GPS provides:
    A) 2‑D position only
    B) 3‑D position and time
    C) 1‑D position only
    D) Only time
    **Answer: B**
28. NavIC is India’s:
    A) Data network
    B) Regional satellite navigation system
    C) Audio broadcast system
    D) Satellite dish
    **Answer: B**

29. TDMA divides access by:
    A) Frequency
    B) Code
    C) Time slots
    D) Space beams
    **Answer: C**
30. FDMA divides access by:
    A) Time
    B) Frequency
    C) Code
    D) Space
    **Answer: B**
31. CDMA spreads user data across:
    A) Time slots
    B) Frequency sub‑bands
    C) Entire spectrum using code
    D) Spatial beams
    **Answer: C**
32. Which multiple access is most suitable for digital satellite communications:
    A) FDMA
    B) TDMA
    C) CDMA
    D) SDMA
    **Answer: B**
33. CDMA requires:
    A) Simple filters
    B) Large bandwidth and complex circuitry
    C) No code assignment
    D) No timing sync
    **Answer: B** ([mcq.electronics-club.com][20])

34. Geostationary orbit altitude is approx:
    A) 300 km
    B) 36,000 km
    C) 3,600 km
    D) 100,000 km
    **Answer: B**

35. Satellite mobile services include:
    A) Only TV broadcast
    B) Internet, voice, emergency comms
    C) Only GPS
    D) Only military uses
    **Answer: B**

36. Kepler’s Second Law describes:
    A) Equal areas in equal times
    B) Orbit periods relation
    C) Circular orbits
    D) Apogee and perigee
    **Answer: A**

37. Kepler’s Third Law:
    A) Squares of periods proportional to cubes of semi-major axis
    B) Apogee and perigee distances equal
    C) Orbits are circular
    D) Satellite speed constant
    **Answer: A**

38. Satellite transponders operate in:
    A) C, Ku, Ka bands
    B) VHF only
    C) UHF
    D) Infrared
    **Answer: A** ([Reddit][21])

39. NavIC covers:
    A) Global region
    B) Regional coverage around Indian sub‑continent
    C) US only
    D) African coverage
    **Answer: B**

40. Demand‑assigned multiple access (DAMA) is:
    A) TDMA variant
    B) FDMA variant
    C) Dynamic allocation method
    D) Passive satellite type
    **Answer: C**
---

## 🟢 Unit III: Optical Communication

LED & LASER sources, PIN/APD detectors, connectors/splices/couplers, transmitter/receiver blocks, applications.

41. LED stands for:
    A) Light Emitting Diode
    B) Laser Emitting Device
    C) Light Emission Driver
    D) Light Energy Diode
    **Answer: A**

42. LASER differs from LED by having:
    A) Incoherent light
    B) Coherent, monochromatic beam
    C) Lower power
    D) Wider spectral width
    **Answer: B**

43. PIN photodiode uses:
    A) PN junction only
    B) Intrinsic layer between P and N
    C) Avalanche region only
    D) Metal-semiconductor junction
    **Answer: B**

44. APD stands for:
    A) Avalanche Photo Diode
    B) Amplified PIN Device
    C) Advanced Photodiode
    D) Active Photo Detector
    **Answer: A**

45. APD advantage over PIN:
    A) Lower sensitivity
    B) Internal gain via avalanche
    C) No bias required
    D) Simplicity
    **Answer: B**

46. Fiber splice is used to join:
    A) Electrical wires
    B) Optical fibers
    C) Coax cables
    D) Metal pipes
    **Answer: B**

47. Optical coupler function:
    A) Split or combine optical signals
    B) Provide mechanical support
    C) Convert light to electricity
    D) Clean connector ends
    **Answer: A**

48. In optical transmitter block diagram, data → driver → light source → fiber. Correct?
    A) Yes
    B) No
    **Answer: A**

49. Optical receiver includes:
    A) Light source
    B) Optical detector + amplifier + decision circuit
    C) Multiplexer
    D) Comb coupler
    **Answer: B**

50. Applications of optical fibers:
    A) Telephony, internet backbone, sensors
    B) Only voice
    C) Only mobile
    D) Radiowave only
    **Answer: A**

51. LED transmitter is:
    A) Expensive, high-speed
    B) Low-cost, lower bandwidth
    C) Coherent
    D) Narrow spectral width
    **Answer: B**

52. Semiconductor laser has:
    A) Broad linewidth
    B) Narrow linewidth, high modulation speed
    C) No bias need
    D) Low coherence
    **Answer: B**

53. PIN diode speed compared to APD:
    A) Faster
    B) Slower
    C) Same speed
    D) Zero speed
    **Answer: B**

54. Fiber connector example:
    A) RJ45
    B) ST, SC, LC
    C) BNC
    D) HDMI
    **Answer: B**

55. Multimode fiber is used for:
    A) Short distance links
    B) Long-distance comms
    C) Wireless only
    D) Satellite link
    **Answer: A**

56. Single‑mode fiber supports:
    A) Long distance, high bandwidth
    B) Short distance only
    C) No light propagation
    D) Microwave signals
    **Answer: A**

57. Coupler splits light ratio as:
    A) Electrical voltage
    B) 50/50, 70/30 etc.
    C) Time division
    D) Frequency bands
    **Answer: B**

58. Optical transmitter block includes:
    A) Laser, optical modulator, driver
    B) Detector only
    C) Multiplexer only
    D) Splice
    **Answer: A**

59. Receiver decision circuit converts:
    A) Optical to digital data bits
    B) Bits to light
    C) Electric to magnetic
    D) Frequency to amplitude
    **Answer: A**

60. Optical communication offers:
    A) Low bandwidth
    B) Immune to EMI, high bandwidth
    C) Low data rate only
    D) Poor security
    **Answer: B**

---

## 🟢 Unit IV: Microwave Communication

Propagation types, frequency ranges, transmitter/receiver/repeater blocks, horn antenna.

61. Ground wave propagation uses:
    A) Sky reflected waves
    B) Follows Earth's surface at low MHz
    C) Ionospheric bounce
    D) Satellite link
    **Answer: B**

62. Sky wave propagation uses:
    A) Ground reflection
    B) Space wave
    C) Ionosphere reflection
    D) Fiber optic
    **Answer: C**

63. Space wave propagation uses:
    A) Fiber link
    B) Microwave line-of-sight
    C) Ionosphere
    D) Ground bounce
    **Answer: B**

64. Microwave frequency range roughly is:
    A) 300 kHz–3 MHz
    B) 300 MHz–300 GHz
    C) 3 GHz–300 GHz
    D) 30 kHz–300 kHz
    **Answer: C**

65. Microwave transmitter block includes:
    A) Modulator, oscillator, power amplifier, antenna
    B) Detector only
    C) Fiber coupler
    D) Horn connector only
    **Answer: A**

66. Microwave receiver includes:
    A) Antenna, LNA, mixer, IF amplifier, demodulator
    B) Laser source
    C) Splice
    D) Baseband only
    **Answer: A**

67. Microwave repeater extends link by:
    A) Reflecting signals passively
    B) Receiving, amplifying and re-transmitting
    C) Changing frequency only
    D) Encrypting signals
    **Answer: B**

68. Horn antenna is:
    A) Omnidirectional
    B) Directive, used with waveguides
    C) Fiber-based
    D) Used for satellite only
    **Answer: B**

69. Horn antenna advantages:
    A) Broad beam
    B) High gain, low loss
    C) Cheap plastic
    D) Variable frequency operation
    **Answer: B**

70. Horn antenna is used in:
    A) Satellite dishes only
    B) Microwave links, radar, measurement
    C) Optical fiber
    D) AM radio
    **Answer: B**

71. In microwave link, line-of-sight distance must consider:
    A) Earth's curvature and Fresnel zone clearance
    B) Fiber loss only
    C) Satellite orbit
    D) Ionosphere delay
    **Answer: A**

72. Microwave frequency band not in use:
    A) Ku band
    B) VHF band
    C) Ka band
    D) X‑band
    **Answer: B**

73. Horn antenna feed type:
    A) Direct waveguide feed
    B) Fiber feed
    C) Coax feed only
    D) Dish feed
    **Answer: A**

74. Microwave links often use:
    A) Duplex communication
    B) Only simplex
    C) No antennas
    D) Optical only
    **Answer: A**

75. Space wave propagation is limited by:
    A) Ionosphere
    B) Line of sight
    C) Ocean reflection
    D) Underground structures
    **Answer: B**

76. Ground wave useful up to:
    A) GHz band
    B) Low HF to MF band (\~3 MHz)
    C) Optical frequencies
    D) Microwave range
    **Answer: B**

77. Horn antenna design shape:
    A) Parabolic reflector
    B) Flared metal waveguide
    C) Wire whip
    D) Yagi structure
    **Answer: B**

78. Microwave mixer block converts:
    A) Baseband to RF
    B) High‑frequency to IF
    C) Optical to electrical
    D) Amplitude to phase
    **Answer: B**

79. Microwave LNA is placed at:
    A) Transmitter
    B) Receiver antenna input
    C) Mixer output
    D) Horn mouth
    **Answer: B**

80. Repeater frequency planning avoids:
    A) Using same frequency for tx/rx
    B) Frequency shift between uplink/downlink
    C) Spatial reuse
    D) Duplex spacing
    **Answer: B**

---

## 🟢 Unit V: Digital Cellular Systems

GSM architecture, services, basics of GPRS.

81. GSM stands for:
    A) Global System for Mobile Communications
    B) General Satellite Mobile
    C) Global Signal Mode
    D) Government Subscriber Mobile
    **Answer: A**

82. GSM services include:
    A) Voice, SMS, data, location-based services
    B) Only voice
    C) Only SMS
    D) Optical fiber
    **Answer: A**

83. GSM architecture includes:
    A) MS, BSC, BTS, MSC, HLR, VLR, AUC
    B) Only BTS and MSC
    C) Only Baseband unit
    D) Only HLR
    **Answer: A**

84. GPRS stands for:
    A) General Packet Radio Service
    B) Global Packet Radio Service
    C) General Push Radio Service
    D) Global PSTN Radio Service
    **Answer: A**

85. GPRS adds which capability to GSM:
    A) Packet-switched data
    B) Only voice
    C) Optical communication
    D) Satellite link
    **Answer: A**

86. GSM uses which multiple access:
    A) FDMA + TDMA
    B) CDMA only
    C) FDMA only
    D) TDMA only
    **Answer: A**

87. GPRS supports:
    A) Circuit switching only
    B) Packet switching over GSM
    C) Optical fiber
    D) Microwave links
    **Answer: B**

88. Mobile Station (MS) refers to:
    A) Base station
    B) Subscriber handset and SIM
    C) Network controller
    D) Satellite dish
    **Answer: B**

89. BTS stands for:
    A) Base Transceiver Station
    B) Base Transfer System
    C) Bandwidth Transmission Station
    D) Broadband Terminal System
    **Answer: A**

90. MSC manages:
    A) Local cell only
    B) Switching between BSCs and external networks
    C) Optical fiber links
    D) Horn antenna
    **Answer: B**

91. HLR stores:
    A) Frequencies only
    B) Permanent subscriber info
    C) Optical transmitter data
    D) Horn parameters
    **Answer: B**

92. VLR stores:
    A) Permanent subscriber info
    B) Temporary info for roaming MS
    C) Optical coupler data
    D) Mixer parameters
    **Answer: B**

93. AUC provides:
    A) Voice routing
    B) Authentication and encryption keys
    C) Horn design
    D) Optical fiber status
    **Answer: B**

94. SMS in GSM is:
    A) Short Message Service
    B) Satellite Messaging System
    C) Subscriber Messaging Server
    D) Spatial Message Service
    **Answer: A**

95. GPRS C‑interface connects:
    A) BSC to SGSN
    B) MS to BTS
    C) MSC to PSTN
    D) None
    **Answer: A**

96. SGSN is:
    A) SMS server
    B) Serving GPRS Support Node
    C) Satellite Gateway Node
    D) Subscriber GNSS Node
    **Answer: B**

97. GPRS supports which IP protocol:
    A) IPv6 only
    B) IPv4
    C) Only voice
    D) Optical
    **Answer: B**

98. GPRS billing is:
    A) Flat rate only
    B) Based on data volume/time
    C) Only voice based
    D) Free
    **Answer: B**

99. GSM TRX carries:
    A) Control channel only
    B) Traffic channels
    C) Fiber signals
    D) Horn signals
    **Answer: B**

100. GSM frequency band in India is:
     A) 900 & 1800 MHz
     B) 800 MHz only
     C) 2.4 GHz
     D) 5 GHz
     **Answer: A**

---