Thursday, July 24, 2025

EDC MCQ QUESTION WITH ANSWERS

 


UNIT 1


🔌 Rectifiers


1. What is the main purpose of a rectifier?

A) To increase voltage

B) To convert DC to AC

C) To convert AC to DC

D) To amplify signals

✅ Answer: C) To convert AC to DC



2. Which of the following uses only one diode?

A) Full-wave rectifier

B) Bridge rectifier

C) Half-wave rectifier

D) None of these

✅ Answer: C) Half-wave rectifier



3. In a full-wave rectifier, the output frequency is:

A) Equal to input

B) Half of input

C) Double the input

D) Zero

✅ Answer: C) Double the input



4. Bridge rectifier uses how many diodes?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 6

✅ Answer: C) 4



5. What is the main advantage of a bridge rectifier over a center-tap rectifier?

A) More diodes used

B) Uses transformer

C) Requires no center tap

D) Expensive

✅ Answer: C) Requires no center tap





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✂️ Clippers and Clampers


6. Which component is essential in a clipper circuit?

A) Diode

B) Capacitor

C) Inductor

D) Transistor

✅ Answer: A) Diode



7. A positive clipper removes the:

A) Positive half of the waveform

B) Negative half of the waveform

C) Both halves

D) Does not remove any part

✅ Answer: A) Positive half of the waveform



8. Which clipper allows current flow in only one direction and clips voltage beyond a specific level?

A) Biased clipper

B) Unbiased clipper

C) Negative clipper

D) Zener clipper

✅ Answer: A) Biased clipper



9. The component responsible for fixing the clamping level in a clamper circuit is:

A) Diode

B) Resistor

C) Capacitor

D) Battery or voltage source

✅ Answer: D) Battery or voltage source



10. What does a positive clamper do to a waveform?

A) Raises it above the zero level

B) Clips the top portion

C) Lowers it below zero level

D) Removes negative half-cycle

✅ Answer: C) Lowers it below zero level



11. Which of the following is not a type of clipper?

A) Positive clipper

B) Negative clipper

C) Series clipper

D) Center clipper

✅ Answer: D) Center clipper



12. Clampers are used to:

A) Change peak voltage

B) Change DC level

C) Clip the signal

D) Amplify input

✅ Answer: B) Change DC level



13. The basic components of a clamper circuit include:

A) Diode and transformer

B) Resistor and capacitor

C) Diode, resistor, and capacitor

D) Inductor and diode

✅ Answer: C) Diode, resistor, and capacitor





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💡 Opto-Electronic Devices


14. Which diode emits light when forward biased?

A) Zener Diode

B) Photo-Diode

C) LED

D) Tunnel Diode

✅ Answer: C) LED



15. LED stands for:

A) Light Emitting Device

B) Light Emitting Diode

C) Linear Energy Diode

D) Low Energy Display

✅ Answer: B) Light Emitting Diode



16. Photo-diode operates in which biasing condition?

A) Forward bias

B) Reverse bias

C) Zero bias

D) Both

✅ Answer: B) Reverse bias



17. Photo-diode is used to:

A) Emit light

B) Regulate voltage

C) Detect light

D) Store charge

✅ Answer: C) Detect light



18. Which factor affects the intensity of light emitted by an LED?

A) Voltage drop

B) Temperature

C) Reverse current

D) Forward current

✅ Answer: D) Forward current



19. Which device generates current when exposed to light?

A) LED

B) Zener diode

C) Photo-diode

D) Varactor diode

✅ Answer: C) Photo-diode



20. In LED, the color of emitted light depends on:

A) Power supply


B) Current

C) Semiconductor material

D) Size of diode

✅ Answer: C) Semiconductor material


UNIT 2


⚙️ 1. BJT Basics & Working Principle


1. What does BJT stand for?

A) Bipolar Junction Terminal

B) Bipolar Junction Transistor

C) Bi-Junction Terminal

D) Bipolar Jet Transistor

✅ Answer: B) Bipolar Junction Transistor



2. Which of the following is a current-controlled device?

A) FET

B) MOSFET

C) BJT

D) UJT

✅ Answer: C) BJT



3. In an NPN transistor, the majority charge carriers are:

A) Holes

B) Electrons

C) Neutrons

D) Ions

✅ Answer: B) Electrons



4. What is the function of the base region in a BJT?

A) Acts as main current path

B) Controls the current flow

C) Blocks current

D) Stores energy

✅ Answer: B) Controls the current flow



5. In a PNP transistor, current flows from:

A) Collector to emitter

B) Base to collector

C) Emitter to collector

D) Collector to base

✅ Answer: C) Emitter to collector





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🔄 2. BJT Modes of Operation


6. Which BJT mode is used for amplification?

A) Cut-off

B) Saturation

C) Active

D) Reverse

✅ Answer: C) Active



7. In the cut-off region of a transistor:

A) Base-emitter junction is forward-biased

B) Collector current is maximum

C) Both junctions are reverse-biased

D) Base-collector junction is forward-biased

✅ Answer: C) Both junctions are reverse-biased



8. When a transistor is in saturation:

A) Acts as an amplifier

B) Acts as an insulator

C) Acts as a switch (ON)

D) No current flows

✅ Answer: C) Acts as a switch (ON)



9. In active mode, the base-emitter junction is:

A) Reverse-biased

B) Forward-biased

C) No bias

D) Short-circuited

✅ Answer: B) Forward-biased



10. In which mode does a BJT act as a switch (OFF)?

A) Active

B) Saturation

C) Cut-off

D) Breakdown

✅ Answer: C) Cut-off


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🧩 3. Transistor Configurations


11. Which transistor configuration gives high voltage gain?

A) Common Collector

B) Common Base

C) Common Emitter

D) All of the above

✅ Answer: C) Common Emitter



12. Which configuration is best for impedance matching?

A) Common Emitter

B) Common Base

C) Common Collector

D) None

✅ Answer: C) Common Collector



13. In CB configuration, the input is between:

A) Collector and base

B) Emitter and base

C) Base and emitter

D) Collector and emitter

✅ Answer: B) Emitter and base



14. In CE configuration, the output is taken from:

A) Emitter

B) Base

C) Collector

D) Ground

✅ Answer: C) Collector



15. Which configuration has unity current gain?

A) Common Emitter

B) Common Base

C) Common Collector

D) Both B and C

✅ Answer: B) Common Base





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⚡ 4. Transistor Biasing


16. Why is biasing necessary in a transistor circuit?

A) To turn it off

B) To change resistance

C) To fix the operating point

D) To reduce noise

✅ Answer: C) To fix the operating point



17. The ratio of change in collector current to change in base current is called:

A) Alpha

B) Beta

C) Stability factor

D) Gain

✅ Answer: B) Beta



18. Which biasing method gives best stability?

A) Fixed bias

B) Collector-to-base bias

C) Voltage divider bias

D) Base resistor bias

✅ Answer: C) Voltage divider bias



19. Which of the following biasing circuits requires the least components?

A) Voltage divider

B) Fixed bias

C) Emitter feedback

D) Collector feedback

✅ Answer: B) Fixed bias



20. Stability factor (S) indicates:

A) Temperature resista

nce

B) Gain

C) Output power

D) Sensitivity to IC changes

✅ Answer: D) Sensitivity to IC changes


UNIT 3


🔌 1. Transistor as Amplifier and Switch


1. What does a transistor do in an amplifier circuit?

A) Blocks current

B) Increases signal strength

C) Acts as a filter

D) Stores energy

✅ Answer: B) Increases signal strength



2. When a transistor is used as a switch, in which regions does it operate?

A) Cut-off and Active

B) Active and Saturation

C) Saturation and Cut-off

D) Breakdown and Active

✅ Answer: C) Saturation and Cut-off



3. In the CE amplifier, the input is applied between:

A) Base and Collector

B) Emitter and Collector

C) Base and Emitter

D) Collector and Ground

✅ Answer: C) Base and Emitter



4. Which amplifier configuration offers both voltage and current gain?

A) Common Base

B) Common Collector

C) Common Emitter

D) None

✅ Answer: C) Common Emitter



5. What phase relationship exists between input and output in a CE amplifier?

A) 0°

B) 90°

C) 180°

D) 360°

✅ Answer: C) 180°





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🎚️ 2. RC Coupled Amplifier


6. RC coupled amplifiers are mainly used for:

A) Power amplification

B) Low-frequency amplification

C) Radio transmission

D) High voltage control

✅ Answer: B) Low-frequency amplification



7. What is the main coupling element between stages in an RC coupled amplifier?

A) Transformer

B) Capacitor

C) Inductor

D) Diode

✅ Answer: B) Capacitor



8. Which is a disadvantage of RC coupled amplifiers?

A) Poor frequency response

B) High cost

C) Low power gain

D) Bulky design

✅ Answer: C) Low power gain



9. What is the bandwidth of an RC coupled amplifier dependent on?

A) Base resistor

B) Coupling capacitor and load

C) Supply voltage

D) Collector resistor

✅ Answer: B) Coupling capacitor and load



10. RC coupled amplifier gives maximum gain in which frequency range?

A) Low

B) Mid

C) High

D) Very high

✅ Answer: B) Mid





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🔊 3. Power Amplifiers


11. Which class of power amplifier has the highest efficiency?

A) Class A

B) Class B

C) Class C

D) Class AB

✅ Answer: C) Class C



12. Which amplifier has output for the full 360° of the input cycle?

A) Class A

B) Class B

C) Class C

D) Class D

✅ Answer: A) Class A



13. Which power amplifier operates only for 180° of the input signal?

A) Class A

B) Class B

C) Class C

D) Class AB

✅ Answer: B) Class B



14. What is the major drawback of Class B amplifier?

A) Low gain

B) High distortion

C) Cross-over distortion

D) High cost

✅ Answer: C) Cross-over distortion



15. Which amplifier configuration helps eliminate cross-over distortion?

A) Class A

B) Class B

C) Push-pull

D) Cascode

✅ Answer: C) Push-pull





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🧩 4. Multistage & Special Amplifiers


16. The purpose of using multistage amplifiers is to:

A) Reduce gain

B) Improve stability

C) Increase overall gain

D) Reduce power consumption

✅ Answer: C) Increase overall gain



17. What is a Darlington pair known for?

A) Low gain

B) High current gain

C) High voltage gain

D) Low input impedance

✅ Answer: B) High current gain



18. Cascode amplifier is a combination of:

A) Two CE amplifiers

B) CE and CB amplifiers

C) CB and CC amplifiers

D) CE and CC amplifiers

✅ Answer: B) CE and CB amplifiers



19. In a cascade amplifier, the output of one stage is:

A) Input to the power supply

B) Fed back to the input

C) Input to the next stage

D) Grounded

✅ Answer: C) Input to the next stage



20. CMRR is associated with which amplifier?

A) Class B


B) RC Coupled

C) Differential

D) Power

✅ Answer: C) Differential


UNIT 4


🔁 1. Feedback Amplifiers


1. What is feedback in an amplifier circuit?

A) Adding noise

B) Sending part of the output to input

C) Boosting power supply

D) Disconnecting input

✅ Answer: B) Sending part of the output to input



2. Which of the following is a type of feedback?

A) Linear and Nonlinear

B) Series and Parallel

C) Positive and Negative

D) Direct and Indirect

✅ Answer: C) Positive and Negative



3. What is the effect of negative feedback on bandwidth?

A) Decreases it

B) No effect

C) Increases it

D) Reverses polarity

✅ Answer: C) Increases it



4. Negative feedback in amplifiers improves:

A) Distortion

B) Noise

C) Stability

D) Input voltage

✅ Answer: C) Stability



5. Which type of feedback reduces gain but increases linearity?

A) Positive

B) Negative

C) Regenerative

D) Capacitive

✅ Answer: B) Negative



6. The four types of negative feedback amplifiers are based on:

A) Current and voltage feedback

B) Biasing methods

C) Resistor values

D) Capacitance type

✅ Answer: A) Current and voltage feedback



7. Negative feedback reduces:

A) Input resistance

B) Output resistance

C) Bandwidth

D) Distortion

✅ Answer: D) Distortion



8. In a voltage series feedback amplifier, the feedback is taken from:

A) Output current

B) Input voltage

C) Output voltage

D) Input current

✅ Answer: C) Output voltage





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🌀 2. Theory of Oscillation


9. Which circuit stores energy in both inductor and capacitor?

A) Amplifier

B) Tank Circuit

C) Filter

D) Transformer

✅ Answer: B) Tank Circuit



10. Which is a basic condition for oscillation?

A) Zero gain

B) Infinite feedback

C) Barkhausen criterion

D) No input

✅ Answer: C) Barkhausen criterion



11. The Barkhausen criterion requires:

A) Loop gain = 0

B) Loop gain > 1

C) Loop gain = 1 with 0° phase shift

D) Output voltage = 0

✅ Answer: C) Loop gain = 1 with 0° phase shift



12. Oscillators are classified based on:

A) Frequency range

B) Phase difference

C) Feedback used

D) Type of wave generated

✅ Answer: C) Feedback used





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🔊 3. Oscillator Circuits


13. Which oscillator uses a tapped inductor for frequency determination?

A) Colpitts

B) Hartley

C) Wien Bridge

D) Crystal

✅ Answer: B) Hartley



14. In a Colpitts oscillator, feedback is derived from:

A) Resistors

B) Inductors

C) Capacitor voltage divider

D) Transformer

✅ Answer: C) Capacitor voltage divider



15. The RC Phase Shift Oscillator uses how many RC sections?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

✅ Answer: C) 3



16. Wien bridge oscillator is commonly used to generate:

A) Sawtooth wave

B) Sine wave

C) Square wave

D) Triangular wave

✅ Answer: B) Sine wave



17. Which component provides stability in a Crystal Oscillator?

A) Capacitor

B) Inductor

C) Resistor

D) Quartz crystal

✅ Answer: D) Quartz crystal



18. Hartley oscillator uses which components to determine frequency?

A) R and C

B) L and C

C) Only R

D) Only C

✅ Answer: B) L and C



19. Which oscillator is most stable in frequency?

A) Hartley

B) RC Phase Shift

C) Wien Bridge

D) Crystal

✅ Answer: D) Crystal



20. Oscillator circuits generate output without:

A) Power supply

B) Input signal

C) Gr

ound connection

D) Feedback

✅ Answer: B) Input signal


UNIT 5


🔷 1. FET Basics

  1. What does FET stand for?
    A) Field Emission Transistor
    B) Field Energy Transistor
    C) Field Effect Transistor
    D) Fixed Electron Transistor
    Answer: C) Field Effect Transistor

  2. FETs are classified into:
    A) BJT and JFET
    B) JFET and MOSFET
    C) UJT and BJT
    D) SCR and TRIAC
    Answer: B) JFET and MOSFET

  3. The input impedance of FET is:
    A) Very low
    B) Moderate
    C) High
    D) Zero
    Answer: C) High

  4. FET is controlled by:
    A) Current
    B) Voltage
    C) Power
    D) Resistance
    Answer: B) Voltage

  5. Which terminal controls the flow of current in JFET?
    A) Drain
    B) Source
    C) Gate
    D) Body
    Answer: C) Gate


🧿 2. JFET – Junction Field Effect Transistor

  1. In N-channel JFET, the majority carriers are:
    A) Holes
    B) Electrons
    C) Protons
    D) Neutrons
    Answer: B) Electrons

  2. The characteristic curve of JFET is called:
    A) Load line
    B) Transfer curve
    C) Output curve
    D) Saturation curve
    Answer: B) Transfer curve

  3. The region where JFET operates as a constant current source is:
    A) Cut-off
    B) Ohmic
    C) Active
    D) Saturation
    Answer: D) Saturation

  4. Pinch-off voltage in a JFET is the voltage at which:
    A) The current becomes zero
    B) Gate current starts flowing
    C) Channel is fully open
    D) Current becomes constant
    Answer: D) Current becomes constant

  5. JFET has how many terminals?
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
    Answer: B) 3


⚙️ 3. MOSFET – Metal Oxide Semiconductor FET

  1. MOSFET has how many operating modes?
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
    Answer: A) 2 (Enhancement and Depletion)

  2. In N-channel Enhancement mode MOSFET, the channel is formed:
    A) At zero gate voltage
    B) By forward biasing gate
    C) When V_GS exceeds threshold
    D) At negative voltage
    Answer: C) When V_GS exceeds threshold

  3. The key difference between JFET and MOSFET is:
    A) Gate is insulated in MOSFET
    B) MOSFET has lower gain
    C) JFET uses holes as carriers
    D) JFET is faster
    Answer: A) Gate is insulated in MOSFET

  4. The substrate terminal in a MOSFET is also known as:
    A) Base
    B) Drain
    C) Body
    D) Channel
    Answer: C) Body

  5. Which MOSFET can operate with both positive and negative gate voltage?
    A) Depletion-mode
    B) Enhancement-mode
    C) BJT
    D) IGBT
    Answer: A) Depletion-mode


🌀 4. UJT – Uni Junction Transistor

  1. How many junctions does a UJT have?
    A) 1
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D) 4
    Answer: A) 1

  2. The UJT is mainly used as a:
    A) Amplifier
    B) Comparator
    C) Oscillator
    D) Switch
    Answer: C) Oscillator

  3. UJT has how many terminals?
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 4
    D) 5
    Answer: B) 3 (Emitter, Base1, Base2)

  4. The UJT relaxation oscillator produces which waveform?
    A) Sinusoidal
    B) Triangular
    C) Sawtooth
    D) Square
    Answer: C) Sawtooth

  5. The UJT is a:
    A) Voltage-controlled device
    B) Current-controlled device
    C) Temperature-controlled
    D) Resistance-controlled
    Answer: A) Voltage-controlled device


ECE DE MCQ QUESTION WITH ANSWER

 





ECE - DE - MCQ

UNIT 1

🔢 Number System and Codes

  1. What is the decimal equivalent of binary number 1101?
    A) 11
    B) 13
    C) 14
    D) 15
    Answer: B) 13

  2. Convert (45)₁₀ to binary:
    A) 101101
    B) 110101
    C) 101011
    D) 110011
    Answer: A) 101101

  3. What is the hexadecimal representation of (255)₁₀?
    A) FE
    B) FF
    C) F0
    D) F1
    Answer: B) FF

  4. (111101)₂ is equivalent to which octal number?
    A) 75
    B) 77
    C) 65
    D) 61
    Answer: A) 75

  5. What is 1's complement of binary number 100101?
    A) 011010
    B) 100010
    C) 011011
    D) 101010
    Answer: A) 011010

  6. 2's complement of 1100 is:
    A) 0011
    B) 0100
    C) 1111
    D) 0101
    Answer: D) 0101

  7. Perform binary addition: 1011 + 1101 = ?
    A) 11000
    B) 10100
    C) 10000
    D) 11110
    Answer: A) 11000

  8. Binary subtraction: 10010 - 01001 = ?
    A) 01001
    B) 10001
    C) 01101
    D) 11111
    Answer: A) 01001

  9. What is the BCD code for decimal number 39?
    A) 0011 1001
    B) 0100 0011
    C) 0011 0110
    D) 0111 0011
    Answer: A) 0011 1001

  10. Which ASCII code represents the character 'A'?
    A) 65
    B) 66
    C) 67
    D) 64
    Answer: A) 65

  11. What is the Gray code for binary number 1010?
    A) 1111
    B) 1110
    C) 1100
    D) 1001
    Answer: B) 1110


🔣 Boolean Algebra and K-Map

  1. According to Boolean algebra, A + A = ?
    A) 1
    B) A
    C) 0
    D) A'
    Answer: B) A

  2. Which is DeMorgan’s First Theorem?
    A) (A + B)' = A'B'
    B) (AB)' = A' + B'
    C) (A + B)' = A + B
    D) A' + B' = (AB)'
    Answer: A) (A + B)' = A'B'

  3. The expression AB + A'C is in which form?
    A) POS
    B) SOP
    C) Canonical SOP
    D) Canonical POS
    Answer: B) SOP

  4. Which Boolean expression represents the POS form?
    A) AB + AC
    B) (A + B)(A + C)
    C) A + B + C
    D) ABC + A'B'C'
    Answer: B) (A + B)(A + C)

  5. What is the simplified form of A + AB using Boolean algebra?
    A) A
    B) AB
    C) B
    D) A + B
    Answer: A) A

  6. What is the value of A ⊕ B (A XOR B) when A = 1 and B = 1?
    A) 1
    B) 0
    C) A
    D) B
    Answer: B) 0

  7. In 4-variable K-map, how many cells are there?
    A) 4
    B) 8
    C) 16
    D) 32
    Answer: C) 16

  8. In K-map, adjacent cells differ by:
    A) 2 bits
    B) 1 bit
    C) 3 bits
    D) No bits
    Answer: B) 1 bit

  9. Simplify using K-map: F(A, B, C) = Σ(1, 2, 3, 7)
    A) A'C + AC
    B) B + C
    C) A + B
    D) AB + BC
    Answer: A) A'C + AC

UNIT 2



🔘 Logic Gates – Symbols, Expressions, Truth Tables


1. Which logic gate has the output expression Y = A · B?

A) OR

B) AND

C) XOR

D) NOT

✅ Answer: B) AND



2. What is the output of an OR gate when both inputs are 0?

A) 1

B) 0

C) A

D) B

✅ Answer: B) 0



3. The NOT gate is also known as a:

A) Inverter

B) Repeater

C) Comparator

D) Amplifier

✅ Answer: A) Inverter



4. Which gate has the truth table where output is 1 only when inputs differ?

A) XOR

B) XNOR

C) NOR

D) AND

✅ Answer: A) XOR



5. What is the Boolean expression for a NAND gate?

A) A + B

B) A · B

C) (A · B)'

D) (A + B)'

✅ Answer: C) (A · B)'



6. The symbol with a curved back and one input is for which gate?

A) NOT

B) AND

C) OR

D) XOR

✅ Answer: A) NOT



7. Which logic gate gives a HIGH output only when both inputs are LOW?

A) NOR

B) NAND

C) AND

D) OR

✅ Answer: A) NOR



8. The truth table of XNOR gate gives output 1 when:

A) Inputs are different

B) Both inputs are 1

C) Both inputs are 0

D) Inputs are the same

✅ Answer: D) Inputs are the same



9. Which gate has the output expression Y = (A + B)'?

A) NAND

B) NOR

C) AND

D) OR

✅ Answer: B) NOR



10. Which of the following are Universal Gates?

A) AND and OR

B) XOR and XNOR

C) NAND and NOR

D) NOT and AND

✅ Answer: C) NAND and NOR





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🧮 Logic Circuit Realization – Using Universal Gates


11. Which gate can be used to construct all other gates?

A) AND

B) OR

C) NAND

D) XOR

✅ Answer: C) NAND



12. How many NAND gates are required to construct a NOT gate?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

✅ Answer: A) 1



13. Using NOR gates, how do you create an OR gate?

A) 2 NOR gates

B) 3 NOR gates

C) 4 NOR gates

D) Not possible

✅ Answer: B) 3 NOR gates



14. Which combination gives AND gate using NAND gates?

A) Invert inputs, then NAND

B) NAND output, then invert

C) NAND output twice

D) NOR of inputs

✅ Answer: B) NAND output, then invert



15. To create an AND gate using only NOR gates, you need:

A) 2 gates

B) 3 gates

C) 4 gates

D) 1 gate

✅ Answer: C) 4 gates



16. Which gate’s output is 0 only when both inputs are 1?

A) OR

B) XOR

C) NAND

D) AND

✅ Answer: C) NAND



17. What is the implementation of A + B using NAND gates?

A) Invert A and B, then NAND

B) A NAND B

C) NAND followed by NOR

D) Cannot be done

✅ Answer: A) Invert A and B, then NAND



18. Which logic gate is used in parity checkers?

A) AND

B) OR

C) XOR

D) NOR

✅ Answer: C) XOR



19. XNOR gate is also called:

A) Even parity gate

B) Difference gate

C) NOT gate

D) Zero detector

✅ Answer: A) Even parity gate



20. The output of a NOR gate is 1 when:

A) Any one input is 1

B) B

oth inputs are 1

C) Both inputs are 0

D) One input is 0

✅ Answer: C) Both inputs are 0


UNIT 3


🔢 Arithmetic Circuits: Adders and Subtractors


1. What are the inputs to a half adder?

A) A, B, Carry-in

B) A, B

C) A, Carry-in

D) A, B, Carry-out

✅ Answer: B) A, B



2. The sum output of a half adder is:

A) A AND B

B) A OR B

C) A XOR B

D) A XNOR B

✅ Answer: C) A XOR B



3. Which of the following is used in a full adder but not in a half adder?

A) AND gate

B) XOR gate

C) Carry-in

D) OR gate

✅ Answer: C) Carry-in



4. How many inputs and outputs does a full adder have?

A) 2 inputs, 1 output

B) 3 inputs, 2 outputs

C) 2 inputs, 2 outputs

D) 3 inputs, 1 output

✅ Answer: B) 3 inputs, 2 outputs



5. The carry output of a full adder is:

A) A XOR B

B) A AND B

C) AB + BC + AC

D) A OR B

✅ Answer: C) AB + BC + AC



6. The difference output of a half subtractor is:

A) A XOR B

B) A AND B

C) A OR B

D) A NAND B

✅ Answer: A) A XOR B



7. Which component is required to design a full subtractor?

A) 1 half subtractor and 1 OR gate

B) 2 half subtractors and 1 OR gate

C) 2 half adders and 1 AND gate

D) 2 full adders

✅ Answer: B) 2 half subtractors and 1 OR gate



8. The borrow output in a half subtractor is:

A) A AND B

B) A' AND B

C) A XOR B

D) A OR B

✅ Answer: B) A' AND B





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💾 Data Processing Circuits: Encoder, Decoder, MUX, DEMUX


9. How many output lines does a 4-to-2 encoder have?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 3

D) 1

✅ Answer: A) 2



10. The number of output lines in an 8-to-3 encoder is:

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 8

✅ Answer: B) 3



11. What is the function of an encoder?

A) Decodes input data

B) Generates sum and carry

C) Converts input to binary code

D) Multiplies input signals

✅ Answer: C) Converts input to binary code



12. Which logic circuit converts binary data from n input lines to a maximum of 2ⁿ output lines?

A) Encoder

B) Decoder

C) Multiplexer

D) Comparator

✅ Answer: B) Decoder



13. How many output lines does a 3-to-8 decoder have?

A) 3

B) 8

C) 6

D) 4

✅ Answer: B) 8



14. A 2-to-4 decoder has how many input and output lines?

A) 2 inputs, 4 outputs

B) 4 inputs, 2 outputs

C) 2 inputs, 2 outputs

D) 4 inputs, 4 outputs

✅ Answer: A) 2 inputs, 4 outputs



15. Which circuit has multiple input lines and selects one line to pass to the output?

A) Decoder

B) Encoder

C) Multiplexer

D) Demultiplexer

✅ Answer: C) Multiplexer



16. How many select lines are needed for a 4-to-1 multiplexer?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

✅ Answer: B) 2



17. What is the function of a demultiplexer?

A) Combines data lines

B) Selects input lines

C) Routes one input to multiple outputs

D) Generates binary numbers

✅ Answer: C) Routes one input to multiple outputs



18. A 1-to-4 demultiplexer requires how many select lines?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

✅ Answer: B) 2





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✅ Parity Generator and Checker


19. A 3-bit even parity generator produces output 1 when:

A) Number of 1s is even

B) Number of 1s is odd

C) All bits are 0

D) All bits are 1

✅ Answer: B) Number of 1s is odd



20. The parity checker is

 used to:

A) Detect errors

B) Count 1s

C) Convert binary to decimal

D) Add bits

✅ Answer: A) Detect errors


UNIT 4


🔄 Flip-Flops and Latches


1. Which gate is used in basic SR Latch construction?

A) XOR

B) NAND

C) XNOR

D) AND

✅ Answer: B) NAND



2. A latch is a:

A) Combinational circuit

B) Sequential circuit without clock

C) Clocked sequential circuit

D) Multiplexer

✅ Answer: B) Sequential circuit without clock



3. What is the output of an SR latch when S = 0 and R = 0 (NAND-based)?

A) Invalid

B) No change

C) Reset

D) Set

✅ Answer: B) No change



4. In NOR-based SR latch, which input combination leads to invalid state?

A) S=1, R=1

B) S=0, R=0

C) S=1, R=0

D) S=0, R=1

✅ Answer: A) S=1, R=1



5. Which flip-flop stores one bit of data and has a clock input?

A) SR

B) D

C) T

D) All of these

✅ Answer: D) All of these



6. What is the purpose of the ‘Clock’ in a flip-flop?

A) Provide delay

B) Synchronize operations

C) Invert output

D) Store data

✅ Answer: B) Synchronize operations



7. Which of the following is not a type of triggering?

A) Level triggering

B) Pulse triggering

C) Edge triggering

D) Voltage triggering

✅ Answer: D) Voltage triggering



8. The output of a D flip-flop is:

A) Same as input

B) Always 0

C) Always 1

D) Inverted input

✅ Answer: A) Same as input



9. The JK flip-flop avoids the invalid state of which other flip-flop?

A) D

B) SR

C) T

D) Master-slave

✅ Answer: B) SR



10. When both J and K are high in a JK flip-flop, the output will:

A) Toggle

B) Set

C) Reset

D) No change

✅ Answer: A) Toggle





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⏱️ More on Flip-Flops and Applications


11. T flip-flop is derived from which flip-flop?

A) JK

B) SR

C) D

D) Master-slave

✅ Answer: A) JK



12. Which flip-flop is commonly used in counters?

A) D flip-flop

B) T flip-flop

C) SR flip-flop

D) Clocked SR

✅ Answer: B) T flip-flop



13. Which flip-flop uses two clocked JK flip-flops to eliminate race condition?

A) D flip-flop

B) T flip-flop

C) Master-Slave JK

D) SR flip-flop

✅ Answer: C) Master-Slave JK



14. What is the purpose of PRESET and CLEAR in flip-flops?

A) Delay outputs

B) Eliminate race condition

C) Initialize or reset outputs

D) Increase speed

✅ Answer: C) Initialize or reset outputs



15. Flip-flops are mainly used in:

A) Memory devices

B) Adders

C) Encoders

D) Decoders

✅ Answer: A) Memory devices





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🔢 Counters


16. What is a counter?

A) Logic adder

B) Memory cell

C) Sequential circuit that counts pulses

D) Encoder

✅ Answer: C) Sequential circuit that counts pulses



17. Asynchronous counter is also known as:

A) Parallel counter

B) Serial counter

C) Ripple counter

D) Decade counter

✅ Answer: C) Ripple counter



18. What is the major drawback of asynchronous counters?

A) High power

B) Limited speed

C) Propagation delay

D) High cost

✅ Answer: C) Propagation delay



19. Which counter has all flip-flops triggered by the same clock?

A) Ripple counter

B) Serial counter

C) Synchronous counter

D) Decade counter

✅ Answer: C) Synchronous counter



20. A decade counter counts from:

A) 0 to 9

B) 0 to 10

C) 0 to 15

D) 1 to 10

✅ Answer: A) 0 to 9


UNIT 5


🔁 Shift Registers


1. What is the primary function of a shift register?

A) Perform arithmetic operations

B) Store and transfer data

C) Decode binary values

D) Generate clock pulses

✅ Answer: B) Store and transfer data



2. In a Serial In Serial Out (SISO) shift register, data is:

A) Entered and removed in parallel

B) Entered in serial, read in parallel

C) Entered and read in serial

D) Stored permanently

✅ Answer: C) Entered and read in serial



3. Which shift register allows loading all bits at the same time and outputs them one by one?

A) Serial In Serial Out

B) Serial In Parallel Out

C) Parallel In Serial Out

D) Parallel In Parallel Out

✅ Answer: C) Parallel In Serial Out



4. Which shift register outputs all bits simultaneously after shifting in serial data?

A) SISO

B) PISO

C) SIPO

D) PIPO

✅ Answer: C) SIPO



5. Which shift register has both parallel input and parallel output?

A) SIPO

B) PIPO

C) SISO

D) PISO

✅ Answer: B) PIPO



6. A 4-bit shift register can hold:

A) 2 bits

B) 4 bits

C) 8 bits

D) 1 byte

✅ Answer: B) 4 bits



7. Which of the following is not an application of shift registers?

A) Serial-to-parallel conversion

B) Parallel-to-serial conversion

C) Data storage

D) Multiplication

✅ Answer: D) Multiplication



8. Shift registers operate based on:

A) Combinational logic

B) Counters

C) Clock pulses

D) Cache memory

✅ Answer: C) Clock pulses





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💾 Memory – ROM and Types


9. ROM stands for:

A) Read On Memory

B) Random Only Memory

C) Read Only Memory

D) Rapid Output Memory

✅ Answer: C) Read Only Memory



10. Which type of ROM can be programmed once by the user?

A) PROM

B) EPROM

C) EEPROM

D) Flash

✅ Answer: A) PROM



11. Which ROM type can be erased using UV light?

A) PROM

B) EPROM

C) EEPROM

D) Flash

✅ Answer: B) EPROM



12. EEPROM can be erased using:

A) Ultraviolet light

B) Heat

C) Electrical signals

D) Magnetic field

✅ Answer: C) Electrical signals



13. Which ROM type is commonly used in USB drives and memory cards?

A) EEPROM

B) Flash

C) EPROM

D) PROM

✅ Answer: B) Flash



14. ROM is generally used for:

A) Temporary storage

B) Storing boot programs

C) Arithmetic operations

D) Cache memory

✅ Answer: B) Storing boot programs





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🧠 Memory – RAM, Cache, and Comparison


15. What does RAM stand for?

A) Read and Memory

B) Random Access Memory

C) Rapid Access Module

D) Registered Arithmetic Memory

✅ Answer: B) Random Access Memory



16. Which type of RAM uses flip-flops to store data?

A) DRAM

B) Flash

C) SRAM

D) EEPROM

✅ Answer: C) SRAM



17. DRAM stores data using:

A) Flip-flops

B) Capacitors

C) Latches

D) Registers

✅ Answer: B) Capacitors



18. Which of the following is faster but more expensive?

A) DRAM

B) SRAM

C) ROM

D) PROM

✅ Answer: B) SRAM



19. Which of the following best compares RAM and ROM?

A) RAM is permanent, ROM is volatile

B) RAM is faster, ROM is slower

C) RAM stores firmware, ROM stores data

D) ROM loses data when power is off

✅ Answer: B) RAM is faster, ROM is slower



20. Cache memory is used to:

A) Store BIOS

B) Backup hard disk

C) Provide faster access to frequently used data

D) Stor

e output permanently

✅ Answer: C) Provide faster access to frequently used data





EDC MCQ QUESTION WITH ANSWERS

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