NSK - TAMILAN ULAGAM

NSK - TAMILAN ULAGAM
NSK - DIPLOMA

Tuesday, November 4, 2025

1010235110 – Design Of Rcc Structures (Limit State Method)

 

1010235110 – Design Of Rcc Structures (Limit State Method)

 ATTEND 20 MARKS MCQ TEST MCQ TEST LINK

 

1. Curtailment of bars is permitted when:
a) Shear is minimum
b) Moment is reduced
c) Sufficient development length is available
 d) All of the above


2. In singly reinforced beam, steel is provided in the:
a) Compression zone only
 b) Tension zone only
c) Both zones
d) Web only


3. Effective span of a cantilever beam is:
a) Clear span
 b) Clear span + d
c) Clear span + 0.5d

d) Clear span + 2d


4. Which type of section occurs when xu < xu,lim in a beam?
 a) Under-reinforced
b) Balanced
c) Over-reinforced
d) Brittle


5. What is the main purpose of a landing in a staircase?
a) To reduce the number of steps
 b) To provide a resting place and change direction
c) To make the staircase look wider
d) To reduce the cost of construction


6. For a simply supported beam of length (l) under a UDL (w), the maximum shear force at the support is:
a) wl
 b) wl/2
c) wl/4
d) wl/8


7. The formula for the shear force resisted by vertical stirrups (Vus) is:
 a) 0.87 fy Asv d / Sv
b) 0.87 fy Asv Sv / d
c) τc b d
d) τv b d


8. The minimum width of a staircase for residential buildings should be:
a) 600 mm
b) 750 mm
c) 900 mm
d) 1200 mm


9. As per IS 456:2000, for continuous beams or slabs, if support width is wider than 1/12 of clear span (or) 600 mm whichever less, for end span with one end fixed and the other continuous or intermediate spans, the effective span is:
 b) Centre-to-centre distance
a) Average of support widths
c) Clear span between supports
d) Not defined


10. As per IS 456:2000, for continuous beams or slabs, if support width is wider than 1/12 of clear span (or) 600 mm whichever less, for end span with one end free and the other continuous, the effective span is:
a) Clear span + half the width of discontinuous support
b) Clear span + half the effective depth
 c) Greater of (A) & (B)
d) Lesser of (A) & (B)**


11. As per IS 456:2000, for continuous beams or slabs, if support width is less than 1/12 of clear span, the effective span is:
a) Clear span + Effective Depth
 b) Centre-to-centre of supports
c) Greater of (A) & (B)
d) Lesser of (A) & (B)


12. For imposed load (not fixed), the coefficient for span moment near middle of end span is:
 a) +1/16
b) -1/16
c) +1/10
d) -1/10


13. Effective span of a simply supported one-way slab is:
a) Clear span + effective depth
b) Clear span + width of support
 c) Lesser of (clear span + effective depth) or center-to-center of supports
d) Clear span only


14. The width of the middle strip in a two-way slab is taken as:
a) The full width of the slab
 b) Half of the slab width
c) 0.125 times the slab length
d) 0.75 times of slab length


15. In a two-way slab, torsional reinforcement is provided at:
a) Edges
b) Center
 c) Corners
d) Mid-span


16. The width of the edge strip in a two-way slab is taken as:
a) The full width of the slab
 b) One-half of the slab width
c) 0.125 times the slab length
d) 0.75 times slab length


17. Long columns fail due to:
 a) Buckling
b) Crushing
c) Bending
d) Torsion


18. The footing is considered safe when:
a) Shear > moment
 b) Soil pressure ≤ SBC
c) Load > area
d) Reinforcement is more


19. The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars used in columns shall be:
a) 8 mm
b) 10 mm
 c) 12 mm
d) 16 mm


20. Which footing is preferred for two columns close together?
a) Strip footing
 b) Combined footing
c) Sloped footing
d) Mat footing

 

1020235110 – ELEMENTS OF MACHINE DESIGN STUDY MATERIALS

 

20 MARKS MCQ TEST LINK MCQ TEST LINK

 

 

1. The preferred number series used in engineering design follows which
a) Arithmetic
 b) Geometric
c) Harmonic
d) Random

👉 Explanation: Engineering preferred number series (like R5, R10) are based on geometric progression for standardization of sizes.


2. The maximum distortion energy theory is also known as:
 a) Von Mises theory
b) Rankine theory
c) Tresca theory
d) Mohr's theory

👉 Explanation: Von Mises theory = Maximum distortion energy theory → used for ductile materials.


3. The factor of safety for brittle materials is usually ______ than for ductile materials.
 a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
d) Unpredictable

👉 Explanation: Brittle materials fail suddenly → so higher safety factor is used.


4. The maximum distortion energy theory is best suited for:
a) Brittle materials
 b) Ductile materials
c) Composites
d) Ceramics

👉 Explanation: Von Mises (Distortion energy) applies to ductile materials like steel.


5. Flange couplings are classified as:
a) Flexible couplings
 b) Rigid couplings
c) Fluid couplings
d) Magnetic couplings

👉 Explanation: Flange coupling rigidly connects shafts — no flexibility for misalignment.


6. In a pin-type flexible coupling, flexibility is achieved by:
a) Increase speed
b) Reduce power loss
 c) Compensate misalignment
d) Lower cost

👉 Explanation: Pins with rubber bushes allow slight misalignment between shafts.


7. Which coupling type would be most suitable for connecting shafts with angular misalignment?
a) Rigid flange coupling
b) Marine coupling
 c) Universal coupling
d) Protected flange coupling

👉 Explanation: Universal joint allows angular motion and misalignment between shafts.


8. The main advantage of marine couplings is:
 a) Corrosion resistance
b) High speed capacity
c) Low maintenance
d) Light weight

👉 Explanation: Marine couplings are designed to resist sea water corrosion.


9. What does the designation 'B75' for a V-belt typically indicate?
a) Belt type 'B' and 75 cm inside length
 b) Belt type 'B' and 75 inches pitch length
c) Belt type 'B' and 75 mm width tension
d) Belt type 'B' and a maximum of 75 N

👉 Explanation: In V-belts, number = pitch length in inches.


10. When designing a V-belt drive using manufacturer’s catalogues, the first step is to determine the:
 a) Design power (Service factor × Power)
b) Center distance
c) Belt length
d) Number of belts

👉 Explanation: Design starts with design power, considering service conditions.


11. The 'angle of contact' for the smaller pulley in an open belt drive is:
a) Always 180°
 c) Always <180°
b) Always >180°
d) Independent of pulley diameters

👉 Explanation: In open belt drive, belt leaves pulley tangentially → less than 180°.


12. A designer needs a belt for 15 kW. Manufacturer’s rating per belt = 4.2 kW. The minimum number of belts is:
a) 3
 b) 5
c) 4
d) 7

👉 Explanation: 15 ÷ 4.2 = 3.57 → take next higher integer = 5 belts (for safety).


13. A bearing designed for axial forces is called:
 a) Thrust bearing
b) Radial bearing
c) Journal bearing
d) Roller bearing

👉 Explanation: Thrust bearing → supports axial (end) loads.


14. In ball bearing code “6205”, bore size is indicated by:
a) First digit
b) Middle digit
c) Prefix letters
 d) Last two digits

👉 Explanation: For bearing codes, bore = last two digits × 5 mm → 05 → 25 mm bore.


15. Journal bearing, D = 50 mm, L = 50 mm, W = 6 kN. Find bearing pressure.
 a) 2.55 MPa
b) 2.30 MPa
c) 2.0 MPa
d) 2.40 MPa

👉 Explanation:
Bearing pressure p=WL×D=60000.05×0.05=2.55 MPap = \frac{W}{L \times D} = \frac{6000}{0.05 \times 0.05} = 2.55 \text{ MPa}p=L×DW​=0.05×0.056000​=2.55 MPa


16. The coefficient of friction in properly lubricated journal bearings is:
 a) 0.001–0.01
b) 0.1–0.3
c) 0.5–0.7
d) 0.8–1.0

👉 Explanation: With lubrication, friction is very low (around 0.001–0.01).


17. The primary role of CAD in design is to:
a) Replace engineers
 b) Assist in design process
c) Manufacture products
d) Market products

👉 Explanation: CAD = Computer-Aided Design, helps engineers design accurately.


18. Value Engineering focuses on:
a) Increasing cost
b) Maintaining function
c) Reducing quality
d) Extending timeline

👉 Explanation: Value engineering = reduce cost without affecting function/quality.


19. The main advantage of solid modeling over wireframe is:
a) Lower cost
 b) Complete representation
c) Faster computation
d) Simpler algorithms

👉 Explanation: Solid models show volume, mass & surface, unlike wireframe.


20. Which modeling approach uses primitives and Boolean operations?
a) B-Rep
 b) CSG
c) Wireframe
d) Surface

👉 Explanation: Constructive Solid Geometry (CSG) uses Boolean ops (union, subtract, intersect) with primitives like cube, cylinder.


Final Answer Key Summary:
1-b | 2-a | 3-a | 4-b | 5-b | 6-c | 7-c | 8-a | 9-b | 10-a | 11-c | 12-b | 13-a | 14-d | 15-a | 16-a | 17-b | 18-b | 19-b | 20-b

 

ECE - MEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION STUDY MATERIALS

 

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20 MCQ TEST 

 

MODEL QP MCQ ANSWERS

 

  1. The potential developed across cell membranes is called:
    a) ✅ Resting potential
    b) Electrostatic potential
    c) Thermal potential
    d) Magnetic potential


  1. Which is NOT a bio electrode?
    a) Surface electrode
    b) Needle electrode
    c) Micro electrode
    d) ✅ pH electrode


  1. Which system controls the activities of all other body systems?
    a) Respiratory system
    b) ✅ Nervous system
    c) Urinary system
    d) Digestive system


  1. Biomedical transducers convert:
    a) Mechanical energy to heat
    b) ✅ One form of energy to another
    c) Electrical to optical
    d) Thermal to mechanical


  1. The normal frequency range of ECG is:
    a) ✅ 0.05–100 Hz
    b) 100–1000 Hz
    c) 10–50 Hz
    d) 1–10 Hz


  1. Which instrument measures brain activity?
    a) ✅ EEG
    b) ECG
    c) EMG
    d) ERG


  1. A Pulse Oximeter measures:
    a) Blood pressure
    b) ✅ Oxygen saturation
    c) Blood glucose
    d) Respiratory rate


  1. Audiometer is used to measure:
    a) Heart rate
    b) Sound intensity
    c) ✅ Hearing ability
    d) Blood flow


  1. A pacemaker is used to:
    a) Start the lungs
    b) ✅ Regulate heartbeat
    c) Measure blood pressure
    d) Monitor EEG


  1. Dialysis is used for:
    a) Heart disease
    b) ✅ Kidney failure
    c) Liver infection
    d) Lung malfunction


  1. Ventilators are used for:
    a) Blood circulation
    b) ✅ Breathing assistance
    c) ECG monitoring
    d) Muscle stimulation


  1. ICD stands for:
    a) ✅ Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillator
    b) Internal Cardiac Device
    c) Implantable Circuit Device
    d) Integrated Control Device


  1. CT scan stands for:
    a) ✅ Computed Tomography
    b) Central Transmission
    c) Cardiac Tracking
    d) Critical Therapy


  1. MRI stands for:
    a) ✅ Magnetic Resonance Imaging
    b) Medical Radiation Imaging
    c) Multiple Ray Imaging
    d) Multi Resonant Image


  1. PET imaging uses:
    a) Ultrasound waves
    b) X-rays
    c) ✅ Radioactive tracers
    d) Infrared rays


  1. Ultrasound imaging uses:
    a) ✅ High-frequency sound waves
    b) Low-frequency sound waves
    c) Magnetic field
    d) Radiation beams


  1. Biotelemetry is used for:
    a) Data storage
    b) ✅ Remote monitoring of physiological signals
    c) Generating current
    d) Recording ECG only


  1. Which type of electric shock is more dangerous?
    a) Micro shock
    b) ✅ Macro shock
    c) Both equally
    d) None


  1. Grounding in medical equipment prevents:
    a) Signal loss
    b) ✅ Electrical shock
    c) Current flow
    d) Heat generation


  1. Telemedicine is used for:
    a) ✅ Remote diagnosis and treatment
    b) Wireless charging
    c) Blood storage
    d) Patient transfer

 

EEE POWER SYSTEM PROTECTION AND UTILISATION STUDY MATERIAL

 

20 MARKS MCQ TEST LINK MCQ TEST

PSPU REVISED


1. What is the primary purpose of protective schemes in electrical systems?

A) To increase the operational efficiency of the system

✅ B) To prevent faults and ensure the system’s safety

C) To reduce system losses

D) To maintain voltage stability



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2. Which of the following is NOT a cause of overvoltage in electrical systems?

A) Lightning direct stroke

B) Indirect lightning stroke

✅ C) Fault in the transformer

D) Voltage surge due to switching operations



---


3. In protection schemes, Current Transformers (CT) and Potential Transformers (PT) are used primarily for:

A) Measuring voltage levels

✅ B) Measuring current and voltage for protective relays

C) Maintaining system frequency

D) Reducing the overall system resistance



---


4. What is the function of a Lightning Arrester in an electrical system?

A) To increase voltage levels during high current conditions

✅ B) To absorb and dissipate the energy from a lightning strike

C) To prevent overcurrent conditions

D) To control the frequency of electrical signals



---


5. The main function of protective relays in power systems is to:

✅ a) Detect faults and initiate circuit breaker operation

b) Measure load current

c) Control voltage

d) Improve power factor



---


6. The operating time of a relay depends on:

a) Type of relay

✅ b) Fault current magnitude

c) Relay location

d) System voltage



---


7. Inverse time relays are used for:

✅ a) Overcurrent protection

b) Distance protection

c) Differential protection

d) Overvoltage protection



---


8. HVDC breakers are specifically used to:

✅ A) Break direct current (DC) faults

B) Break high-voltage AC faults

C) Interrupt low-voltage faults

D) Control surge currents in the system



---


9. When selecting an electric motor for a particular application, which of the following is a key factor in determining the motor choice?

A) The efficiency of the motor at full load

B) The power factor of the motor at idle

✅ C) The starting torque and speed characteristics required for the application

D) The color of the motor casing



---


10. Magnetic Levitation (MAGLEV) trains primarily rely on:

A) Conventional track electrification systems

✅ B) The force of electromagnetic propulsion and repulsion for lifting and moving the train

C) Diesel engines for power

D) Braking through traditional friction mechanisms



---


11. Which of the following is NOT a typical system of track electrification used in railway systems?

A) Third rail system

B) Overhead catenary system

C) Inductive power transfer system

✅ D) Ground-based magnetic resonance system



---


12. The Pantograph collector in an overhead electrification system is used for:

A) Providing mechanical support to the overhead wires

✅ B) Collecting electric power from the contact wire for the train's operation

C) Insulating the train from the overhead equipment

D) Stabilizing the train’s speed during operation



---


13. Which of the following lighting sources is most energy-efficient and has the longest lifespan?

A) Incandescent Lamps

B) Sodium Vapour Lamps

C) CFL (Compact Fluorescent Lamp)

✅ D) LED (Light Emitting Diode)



---


14. In factory lighting, which of the following characteristics is most important to ensure safe and efficient operation?

A) High color temperature to ensure better visibility

✅ B) Uniform distribution of light with minimal glare

C) Use of incandescent bulbs for quick startup

D) High lumen output but low energy consumption



---


15. Floodlighting is typically used for:

A) Providing general illumination for indoor spaces

✅ B) Illuminating large outdoor areas such as stadiums, buildings, or monuments

C) Lighting up small areas such as office desks

D) Enhancing visual comfort in low-light conditions in homes



---


16. In modern lighting systems, the use of sensors and IoT for lighting control allows for:

A) Manual operation of each light individually

✅ B) Automatic adjustment of lighting based on occupancy, daylight, and activity

C) Increased energy consumption by maintaining lights on at all times

D) Eliminating the need for lamps and lighting equipment entirely



---


17. Induction heating works on the principle of:

A) Direct current flow through a resistance coil to generate heat

✅ B) Magnetic fields inducing electric currents in the material, generating heat

C) High-frequency radiation absorbed by the material

D) The resistance of the material to an external electric field causing heating



---


18. In electric arc furnaces, the heat is primarily generated by:

A) The resistance of the material to an alternating current

✅ B) Electric arcs formed between electrodes and the material

C) High-frequency currents applied directly to the metal

D) Heating coils placed around the furnace chamber



---


19. Coreless induction furnaces are preferred in metal melting due to:

✅ A) Their ability to provide precise temperature control

B) Their large size and high output capacity

C) Their reliance on external heating elements for temperature regulation

D) Their simpler design and lack of a magnetic core, leading to less electrical loss



---


20. Which of the following types of electric welding is most suitable for joining delicate or thin materials without excessive heat generation?

A) Resistance Welding

B) Arc Welding

✅ C) Ultrasonic Welding

D) Laser Beam Welding

Saturday, October 25, 2025

DIPLOMA REVISED BOARD EXAM TIME TABLE OCT 2025

 



Click here to Download Revised Board Exam October time table 👇🏻👇🏻👇🏻


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Old time table link 

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Link 2 

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Saturday, October 18, 2025

R2023 PRACTICAL QUESTION BANK

 Diploma Regulation 2023 Practical Question Bank for 5 th semester 

Link


Regular Department ( ECE, CSE, CIVIL, MECH, EEE ) Link 

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SPECIAL COURSES DOWNLOAD LINK 

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DIPLOMA R2023 BOOKS PDF DOWNLOAD

 REGULATION 2023 BOOKS DOWNLOAD FOR ALL DEPARTMENTS


https://drive.google.com/drive/folders/1MjuN5To2EihP-Z0IAsMk2LA28o4cas0V

DOWNLOAD BOOKS

 The link for access DOTE text Book for all Departments.

ACS CA1

  Part A 1. ASK stands for:  a) Amplitude Shift Keying b) Amplitude Sharing Keying  c) Analog Signal Keying d) Amplitude Sampling Key  2. In...